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Monica [59]
2 years ago
11

Scottish Company manufactures a variety of toys and games. John Chisholm, president, is disappointed in the sales of a new board

game. The game sold only 10,000 units in 2018 when 30,000 were projected. Sales for 2019 look no better. At $100 per game, it is not a hot seller. Direct costs of the board game are $56 variable cost and $100,000 fixed. John is considering several options. Option One: Cut the price to $70 and perhaps sell 15,000 units. Option Two: Cut the price to $60, reduce material costs by $10, and cut advertising by $60,000. Anticipated volume for this option is 10,000 units. Option Three: Cut the price to $80 and include a $10 mail-in rebate offer. It is anticipated that 15,000 units could be sold and only 30 percent of the rebate coupons would be redeemed.
What is the profit (loss) from Option One?
a. $1,050,000
b. $950,000
c. $110,000
d. $210,000
Business
1 answer:
Schach [20]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

c. $110,000

Explanation:

The computation of profit (loss) from Option One is shown below:-

Profit (loss) from Option One =  Sold unit × (Cut the price - Variable cost) - Fixed cost

=  15,000 × ($70 - $56) - $100,000

= 15,000 × $14 - $100,000

= $210,000 - $100,000

= $110,000

Therefore for computing the profit (loss) from Option One we simply applied the above formula.

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A quality improvement project was initiated in an industry that has seasonal demand for their product, coolers/ice chests, which
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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Histogram.

Explanation:

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Thus,<em> the project in the example can use a histogram to portrait its level of sales through the different seasons.</em>

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2 years ago
On November 1, 2017, Kalen Corporation’s stockholders’ equity section is as follows: Common stock, $10 par value $600,000 Paid-i
kvasek [131]

Answer:

The Answer is given below

Explanation:

a. Common Stock $600,000

b. Paid in capital  in excess of par value  $180,000

c. Retained Earnings= ($200,000-($600,000*15%))=$110,000

d. Total Stockholders' Equity= $180,000+$600,000+$110,000=$890,000

Please note that dividend is paid on par value which is $10*15%=1.5 per share.

Total shares*dividend per share=total dividend paid

1.5*($600,000/10)=$90,000

or $600,000*15%=$90,000

Therefore dividend of $90,000 is deducted from retained earnings

7 0
2 years ago
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bearhunter [10]

Answer: Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.

If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.

The preferences of Pam, Pru and Pat are given. Therefore, according to their preferences, the opportunity cost of the trip to Hawaii for Pam and Pat is a cruise and for Pru is a skiing.  

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Answer:

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  • In our case for locational arbitrage one will have to buy Indian rupee from National bank at the ask rate and then sell them to American bank at the bid rate to make profit.
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Answer and Explanation:

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