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1 year ago

Here is the income statement for Larkspur, Inc.

Business

1 answer:

adoni [48]1 year ago

5 0

Answer:

a. The Earnings per share is $3.87

b. The Price-earnings ratio is 3.87 times

c. The Payout ratio is 12.21%

d. The Times interest earned is 10.32

Explanation:

a. The Earnings per share would be calculated as follows:

Earnings per share = (Net income – Preferred stock dividend)/Average number of common shares outstanding

We need to use the formula of the Weighted Average number of common shares outstanding to calculate the Preferred stock dividend.

Therefore, Weighted Average number of common shares outstanding = (Number of common shares outstanding in the beginning + Number of common shares outstanding in the end)/2

= (27,600 + 36,700)/2

= 32,150

Preferred stock dividend = $6,700

Therefore, Earnings per share= (131,100 – 6,700)/32,150

= 124,400/42,150

= $3.87

b. The Price-earnings ratio would be calculated as follows:

Price - earning ratio = Market price per share / Earning per share

= $15 / $3.87 = 3.87 times

c. The Payout ratio would be calculated as follows:

Payout ratio = (Total cash dividends - Preferred stock dividends) / Net income

= ($22,700 - $6,700) / $131,000 = 12.21 %

d. Times interest earned would be calculated as follows:

Times interest earned = (Net income + Interest expense + Tax expense)/Interest expense

= (131,100 + 16,700 + 24,600)/16,700

= 10.32 times

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Your uncle holds just one stock, East Coast Bank (ECB). You agree that this stock is relatively safe, but you want to demonstrat

g100num [7]

Complete question:

Assume that your uncle holds just one stock, East Coast Bank (ECB), which he thinks has very little risk. You agree that the stock is relatively safe, but you want to demonstrate that his risk would be even lower if he were more diversified. You obtain the following returns data for West Coast Bank (WCB). Both banks have had less variability than most other stocks over the past 5 years.

Year ECB WCB

2004 40.00% 40.00%

2005 -10.00% 15.00%

2006 35.00% -5.00%

2007 -5.00% -10.00%

2008 15.00% 35.00%

a. What is the expected return and risk of each stock?

b. Measured by the standard deviation of returns, by how much would your uncle's risk have been reduced if he had held a portfolio consisting of 60% in ECB and the remainder in WCB? In other words, what is the difference between portfolio's standard deviation and weighted average of components' standard deviations? (Hint: check the example on page 11-12 on my note).

Solution:

The estimated return of the stock is the average profit.

So the average of ECB is (40-10+35-5+15)/5

= $\frac{75 percent}{5}$

= 15% expected return

WCB expected return = 40+15-5-10+35

= $\frac{75 percent}{5}$

= 15%

They've had the same planned return.

This is generally defined in the Greek letter Mu, (U) A weighted average may also be used to calculate portfolio volatility.

Standard deviation of ECB is $\sqrt{{ sum [(x-U)^2]/5}}$

so for ECB:

$(40-15)^2$ = $25^2$ =6.25%

$(-10-15)^2$ = $-35^2$ = 0.1225

$(35-15)^2$ = $20^2$ = 0.04

$(-5-15)^2$ = $-20^2$ = 0.04

$(15-15)^2$ =0

now 0.0625+0.1225+0.04+0.04+0=0.265

stdev= $\sqrt{(0.265/5)}$ = 0.23

So WCB is the same except in a different order to make things quick I'm only going to add the median again WCB=0.23

Then the 60/40 portfolio will be the "weighted average" of the returns.

portfolio returns

2004: (60%*40%)+(40%*40%) = 40%

2005: (60%*-10%)+(40%*15%) = 0%

2006: (60%*35%)+(40%*-5%) = 19%

2007: (60%*-5%)+(40%*-10%) = -7%

2008:(60%*15%)+(40%*35%) = 23%

we have an average return of (40+19-7+23)/5 = 75/5 =15%

The estimated return of all combined stocks is a better way to do so.

we knew they both had expected returns of 15% so we can say

(60%*15%)+(40%*15%)=15% so the portfolio has an expected return of 15%

Now we do the standard deviation for the whole portfolio and get

$(40-15)^2$ = $25^2$ =6.25%

$(0-15)^2$ = - $25^2$ =6.25%

$(19-15)^2$ = $4^2$ = 0.16%

$(-7-15)^2$ = $-22^2$ = -4.84%

$(23-15)^2$ = $8^2$ = 0.64%

now add them up and get 9.78%

$\sqrt{(9.78%/5)}$ = 13.98%

Therefore, the normal portfolio variance is 13.98 per cent and the predicted portfolio return is 15 per cent.

Every stock has a standard deviation of 23 per cent and an average return of 15 per cent, meaning that the fund has the same estimated return but with less standard deviation. This ensures that the same gain is less costly. It's stronger than any of these products.

5 0

1 year ago

A company with more production power than is generally utilized for its current production activity can benefit from entering th

Liula [17]

Answer:

a. The company can utilize production facilities to produce greater volumes to meet demand from a larger market, leading to higher productivity, lower cost and greater profitability.

Explanation:

Options are <em>"a. the company can utilize its production facilities to produce greater volumes to meet demand from a larger market, leading to higher productivity, tower cost and greater profitability. b. it will lead to a lower sales volume, which enables the company to free up more production power and require fewer employees. c. it will lead to a lower sales volume, which will reduce production costs and lead to greater production power. d. It will lead to a lower sales volume which means using less production power, enabling employees to have more time to participate in a learning environment."</em>

<em />

The question here is how the company will benefit by entering global market. And to enter global market, the company must produce larger volumes. So, the options B, C,& D are not correct. Because the company is looking to produce more and utilize its production capacity to the full to increase the profits by decreasing the costs (economies of scale). Thus, option A is correct.

6 0

2 years ago

What allows consumers to receive goods and services in a non-price rationing system?

Tatiana [17]

Non-price rationing system is commonly done by queuing (to resolve rationing problems brought by price ceilings) and by coupons (to restore buyer equilibrium). Favored customers who received special treatment from dealers when there is an excess demand, which means: owners giving goods and services to their friends, is another non-price rationing mechanism. I hope that this is the answer that you were looking for and it has helped you.

6 0

2 years ago

Explain the five steps of the theory of constraints (TOC) process. To what processes might the company in the case study apply T

irga5000 [103]

Explanation:

The theory of constraints (TOC) is a theory whose objective is to identify the most limiting constraint related to a systemic organizational process, that is, to identify the bottleneck that prevents an organization from carrying out its activities effectively and consequently achieving its objectives.

The steps are:

1- Identify: The first step is to identify the most limiting current constraint in the organization.

2- Exploit: In the exploit stage, it means making improvements with the resources available in the identified constraint.

3- Subordinate: In this stage, the review of other organizational activities that may interfere with the identified constraint is carried out, to identify whether there is how to make improvements in the subordinate activities that can guarantee the reduction of the constraint.

4- Elevate: In this stage, actions are implemented to eliminate the constraint if it has not yet been eliminated.

5- Repeat: In the last step, each step of the cycle is monitored so that there is continuous improvement in the elimination of the current constraint or a new constraint, so that the processes are constantly optimized.

TOC is effective in companies that use systemic production processes, as in a manufacture for example, whose stages of the production process are subordinate and one interferes in the quality of the other, which can interfere in the process as a whole.

The theory of constraint offers the continuous improvement of all processes and the elimination of current restrictions and the better identification of possible new restrictions, as well as the best use of organizational resources, which generates for the company greater profitability, less waste and less time delivery, improving the entire organizational process.

6 0

2 years ago

Bartlett Company's target capital structure is 40% debt, 15% preferred, and 45% common equity. The after-tax cost of debt is 6.0

anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

WACC is 9.26%

Explanation:

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of common share x Weightage of common share ) + ( Cost of Preferred share x Weightage of Preferred share ) + ( Cost of debt x Weightage of debt )

Cost of debt is already given as after tax cost of debt.

WACC = ( 12.75% x 45% ) + ( 7.5% x 15% ) + ( 6% x 40% )

WACC = 5.7375% + 1.125% + 2.4% = 9.2625 % = 9.26%

4 0

2 years ago