Answer: 130 days
Explanation:
The Cash Conversion Cycle is a measure that attempts to show how many days on average it takes a company to convert resources into cash.
It is calculated with the following formula,
= Days of Inventory Outstanding + Days of Sales Outstanding - Days of Payables Outstanding
Where,
Days of Inventory Outstanding is the amount of days it takes to convert inventory to sales
Days of Sales Outstanding is the amount of time it takes debtors to pay the company for goods they bought and,
Days of Payables Outstanding is the time it took the company to pay for the goods it bought
Plugging in the figures we have,
= 100 + 60 - 30
= 130 days
The firm's cash conversion cycle is 130 days.
Answer:Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation: An effective team involves people who interact with each other to accomplish certain goals or meet certain needs. Team members work intensely with each other to achieve a specific, common goal or objective. This therefore attracts other people to them, that is magnetism. In as much as they look out to achieve their goals, they are also interested in others' success.
Answer:
$241,500
Explanation:
Calculation for What amount should Sunland report as its December 31 inventory
December 31 inventory per physical count $190,500
Add Goods-in-transit purchased FOB shipping point $29,000
Add Goods-in-transit sold FOB destination $22,000
December 31 Inventory $241,500
($190,500 + $29,000 + $22,000 = $241,500)
Therefore What amount should Sunland report as its December 31 inventory is $241,500
Answer:
Break-even point in dollars is b) 810,811
Explanation:
Break-even point is the amount of sales in a company when there is no lost nor earnings. When the sales cover both fixed costs and variable costs.
It is calculated with the fixed cost divided to the porcentage of contribution margin.
step 1: % of contribution margin
CMg/total sales
($90,000+$280,000)/$1,000,000=0.37 %CMg
Step 2: Break-even point
FC/%CMg
$300,000/0.37=$810,811
Answer:
PV= $1,006,512.21
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payments= $150,000
Discount rate= 8%
Number of periods= 10 years
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {150,000*[(1.08^10) - 1]} / 0.08
FV= $2,172,984.37
<u>Now, we can determine the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,172,984.37/(1.08^10)
PV= $1,006,512.21
