Answer:
$6.3 per share
Explanation:
There are two method of Valuation of the firm
- Weighted average cost of the capital (WACC)
- Free cash flow to equity (FCFE)
We have to calculate the value of the firm using FCFE. Free cash flow to equity (FCFE) is the amount of cash flow generated by the business and potentially available for distribution among the stockholders.
Value of firm = Free cash flow / required rate of return = $120,000 / 12% = $1,000,000
Market value of Equity = Total value of firm - Market value of Debt - Market value of Preferred share
Market value of Equity = $1,000,000 - $300,000 - $70,000 = $630,000
Value of Patrick's stock = Market Value of equity / shares of stock outstanding = $630,000 / 100,000 = $6.3 per share
Answer:
MILLER STORES
Ke = Rf + β(Market risk premium)
12.7 = Rf + 1.38(7.4)
12.7 = Rf + 10.212
Rf = 12.7 - 10.212
Rf = 2.488%
DIVISION A
Ke = Rf + β(Risk premium)
Ke = 2.488 + 1.52(7.4)
Ke = 2.488 + 11.248
Ke = 13.74%
Explanation:
First and foremost, we need to calculate risk-free rate using the data relating to Miller Stores. In this case, the cost of equity, beta and market risk premium of Miller Stores were provided with the exception of risk-free rate. Then, we will make risk-free rate the subject of the formula.
We also need to calculate the cost of capital of division A, which is risk-free rate plus beta multiplied by the market risk-premium.
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is option B) Recession.
Explanation:
The reserve bank of India ( RBI ) has been lowering its repo rate ( which is the rate at which it lends to banks ) to counter the problem of recession in the economy. The aim here is to apply the expansionary monetary policy, in which the money supply in the economy would be increased by cutting down the interest rate, which will lead to decrease in cost of borrowing and increase in investment . The government would also increase its spending.
Answer:
Explanation:
The Risk neutral probability is given by
e
rt
−
D / U-D
U=1.1
D=0.9
R=0.12
T=3/12
π
u
=
e∧
0.12
∗
3
/
12
−
0.9
/1.1
−
0.9
=0.652
π
d
=
1−
0.652
=
0.348
The values of american and european options at each node is given in the following table.
0.652
0
0.81 48.4
0.652
0.81
American option value 2.54 44
probability 0.652/0.3478'
Option value 2.12 2.4
Futures price 40 6 39.6
0.3478
4.76
36
0.3478
9.6
32.4
Time period 0 3 6
the value at up node at 3 months is given by = (
0.652∗
0
)
+
(
0.3478
∗
2.4
)/e
∧0.12
∗
3
/
12 = 0.81
Hence, value of european put option =$2.12
Value of American put option = 2.54
Answer:
$ 347,818
Explanation:
Intrinsic value of property = Net operating income / Capitalisation rate
WHILE
Net operating income = Earning from property - Operating expenses which is related to property
Earning from Property =
($8600+$200)*12*85%
=$8800*12*0.85
=$89,760
Operating expenses;
Property tax $10,000
Insurance $3,500
Advertising expenses $1,500
Maintenance cost $12,500
Interest expenses $24,00
Total $51,500
Net operating income =$89,760-$51,500
=$38,260
Net operating income for perpetuity
Intrinsic value = 38260/0.11
=$ 347,818
Therefore the intrinsic value of the property is $ 347,818