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gayaneshka [121]
2 years ago
12

The town of Gracie has established a permanent fund to account for numerous significant gifts intended to maintain a cemetery in

perpetuity. Investment earnings from the permanent fund have been more than enough to maintain the cemetery. What fund balance classification should be used to account for unspent investment earnings that remain in the fund at year end
Business
1 answer:
Viktor [21]2 years ago
4 0

Answer: B. Restricted Fund Balance

Explanation:

A Restricted Fund is created when the source of the funds sets certain stipulations for the use of the money which in this case is that the monies should be used for the maintenance of the cemetery. The monies will therefore be restricted to that use alone.

The Unspent Investment Earnings will be reinvested in the Permanent fund at the end of the year. The Permanent Fund is a Restricted fund account therefore the Unspent earnings will be classified as a Restricted fund balance as well.

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Companies HD and LD have the same tax rate, sales, total assets, and basic earning power.
CaHeK987 [17]

Answer:

e. Company HD has a lower times interest earned (TIE) ratio.

Explanation:

We know that both companies have the same EBIT, because both have the same Basic Earning Power, which is calculated by dividing EBIT by Total Assets.

Then if company HD has a higher debt ratio and higher interest expenses, it means that the Times Interest Ratio in HD company it's lower than LD company, the Times Interest Ratio , it's calculated by dividing EBIT/Interest Expenses, at the same EBIT, but higher interest expenses on HD company, it means a lower Times Interest Ratio to this company.

3 0
2 years ago
Gunther wants to work as an elected official but does not have a bachelor’s degree. He is a passionate speaker and has a solid m
disa [49]
The correct answer should be <span>Yes, because though most Governance employees have a bachelor’s degree, it is not required.

A formal education degree is not necessary for getting a position in a governing office. His military career can be helpful since many military generals have been involved in politics because of their high rank, and he wouldn't be the first or the last military general that became a leader of a country due to their experience. He obviously has experience in the field and in working with people and if he is high ranked that also means that he can manage organizations well, so he can become an officer in a governing position if he desires to.</span><span />
7 0
2 years ago
Jiminy's Cricket Farm issued a 30-year, 6.3 percent semiannual bond eight years ago. The bond currently sells for 110 percent of
pentagon [3]

Answer:

Explanation:

a.)

Book value of debt is the debt amount in Jiminy's Cricket Farm's balance sheet on the liabilities section. Total book value of debt is calculated by be the summing up of the book values of the two bonds this company has.

Book value of 30 year bond = $135,000,000

Book value of the Zero-coupon bond = $65,000,000

Total book value of debt = $135 + $65 = $200,000,000

b.)

Total market value of debt will be the sum of market values of the two bonds this company has. It is calculated by multiplying the current price of the bond by the number of outstanding bonds.

market value = Price * number of bonds

<u>30 year bond;</u>

Number: 135,000,000/1000 = 135,000 bonds

Market value = 1.10 * 1000 *135,000 = $148,500,000

<u>Zero-coupon bond;</u>

Number: 65,000,000/1000 = 65,000 bonds

Market value = 0.643 * 1000 *65,000 = $41,795,000

Total market value of debt = $148,500,000 + $41,795,000 = $190,295,000

c.)

Aftertax cost of debt is the adjusted interest rate paid on debt because of the benefit of tax shield due to leverage. Since there are two bonds, find the average of the two rates to get after tax cost of debt.

You can find the Pretax cost of debt first. Using a financial calculator, input the following;

<u>30 year bond;</u>

N = 30*2 = 60

PV = -148,500,000

PMT = (6.3%/2)* $135,000,000 = 4,252,500

FV = $135,000,000

then compute semiannual rate; CPT I/Y = 2.804%

Convert to annual rate = 5.607% (this is the pretax cost of debt)

<u>Zero-coupon bond;</u>

N = 12

PV = -$41,795,000

PMT = 0

FV = $65,000,000

then CPT I/Y = 3.749%  (this is the pretax cost of debt)

Next, find the average pretax cost of debt =  (5.607% + 3.749%) /2 = 4.678%

After tax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)

After tax cost of debt = 4.678% (1-0.22) = 3.65%

7 0
2 years ago
Ravena Labs., Inc. makes a single product which has the following standards:
slega [8]

Answer:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $4,375 unfavorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard

Direct labor...........................................1.4 hours at $12.50 per hour

Direct labor-hours worked: 5,600 hours for $67,200.

units produced= 3,750

To calculate the direct labor efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

standard quantity= 1.4*3,750= 5,250

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (5,250 - 5,600)*12.5

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $4,375 unfavorable

8 0
2 years ago
Venus wholesale co. started carrying a new product in december. purchases and sales of this product during the month were:
Gemiola [76]
<span>During the month of December Venus Wholesale Co. purchased 140 units at $80 per unit on December 20 and sold 60 units on December 26. And on December 28 they purchased 140 units at $120 per unit. They started carrying the product in December.</span>
7 0
2 years ago
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