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Kruka [31]
2 years ago
14

A stock has had the following year-end prices and dividends: Year Price Dividend 1 $ 43.37 - 2 48.35 $ .60 3 57.27 .63 4 45.35 .

80 5 52.27 .85 6 61.35 .93 What are the arithmetic and geometric average returns for the stock? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
RideAnS [48]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

geometric mean return = 1.2%

arithmetic mean return = 1.21%

Explanation:

Year            Price            Dividend              Yearly return

1                  $43.37                 -                            0

2                 $48.35            $0.60                      1.24%

3                 $57.27            $0.63                       1.1%

4                 $45.35            $0.80                       1.76%

5                 $52.27            $0.85                       1.63%

6                  $61.35            $0.93                       1.52%

geometric mean return = [(1 + 0) x (1 + 0.0124) x (1 + 0.011) x (1 + 0.0176) x (1 + 0.0163) x (1 + 0.0152)]¹/⁶ - 1 = 1.012 - 1 = 0.012 = 1.2%

arithmetic mean return = (0% + 1.24% + 1.1% + 1.76% + 1.63% + 1.52%) / 6 = 7.25% / 6 = 1.21%

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Answer:

TurnBull's Weighted Average cost of capital is higher by 1.07% if the used common Equity to raised the capital.

Explanation:

First, using the WACC formula and using Retained earnings cost of Capital. we get the following outcome.

WACC = Debt W x after tax cost of Debt + Preferred Stock weight x Cost of capital + Equity W x Cost of Capital

WACC = 45% x 8.33% + 4% x 12.20% + 51% x 14.70% =

WACC = 3.75% + 0.49% + 7.50% = 11.73%

Second, using the WACC formula and using common equity cost of Capital. we get the following outcome.

WACC = Debt W x after tax cost of Debt + Preferred Stock weight x Cost of capital + Equity W x Cost of Capital

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Answer:

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1      554,184 17,100 22,167.36 5,067.36  559,251

2      559,251 17,100 22,370.05 5,270.05         564,521

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discount on bond payable 15,816 debit

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interest expense 22,167.36 debit  

discount on BP                   5067.36 credit

cash                                   17100      credit

--to record interest payment--

bonds payable 570,000       debit

interest expense 22,580.86 debit

     discount on bonds payable 5,480.86 credit

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Under the effective interest method we determinate the interest expense by multiplying the carrying value of the bond by the market rate.

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The difference will be the amortization on the bonds discount.

This, will generate a new carrying value so the process is repeated until maturity.

The journal entries will be as follows:

<u>on issuance:</u>

we receive cash, so we debited.

We assume a liability so tis credited and we also create the discount account to adjust the face value of the bond to what we really get for them

<u>on interest payment:</u>

we credit the cash outlay in favor of the bondholders

we debit the interest expense generate for the effective rate method

and we credit the discount by the difference

<u>retirement</u>

we credit the total cash outlay (principal + interest of the period)

we write-off the bonds payable and the bond discount

we reocgnize the last interest expense under debit

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