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PtichkaEL [24]
1 year ago
15

Delta Company sells bells to customers for $1 each. The variable cost to manufacture the bells is 10 cents. If the rattle depart

ment, a division of the Delta Company, wants to use the bells in its new line of rattles, which of the following transfer prices can be used if there is excess capacity? Select the correct answer(s). Multiple boxes may be checked if needed. A. $0.00 B. $0.05 C. $0.11 D. $0.95 E. $1.50 F. $2.00
Business
1 answer:
ale4655 [162]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

Option C. $0.11

Option D. $0.95

Explanation:

As we know that the Transfer Price is set at either selling price for an outside market or variable cost plus opportunity cost if the product sold is to internal market present within the organization (Inter group or inter division sales).

However, the division can still charge upper limit price to the division which is $1 market price of the product.

Upper limit = $1

As it is given that the selling of the additional units will be among divisions which means its inter division market. Hence the lower limit will be used here.

Lower Limit = Variable cost + opportunity cost

Here

Variable cost is $10 cents

And

Opportunity cost will be zero here as the division will be using its excess capacity to sell to the other division, so there is no opportunity cost.

So, by putting values, we have:

Lower Limit = $0.1 - $0 = $0.1

Upper limit = $1

Thus the transfer price set for each bell can be between $1 and $0.1. So the $0.11 and $0.95 falls between these range and both are correct options here.

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A pharmaceutical manufacturer offers monetary incentives to its sales representatives to promote a new drug to the medical profe
Advocard [28]

Answer:

pull strategies                            

Explanation:

A pull tactic is a method used to get one to the consumer. Rather of pressing the company into the client, pull approach includes the use of pull strategies or knowledge exchange to draw the consumer. Such clients would also continue selling the company for you.

The industry words pushing and pulling emerged in manufacturing and business process planning, but are now commonly used in promotions, as well as becoming a concept commonly used in hospitality delivery. Walmart is indeed an example of a corporation employing the push vs. pull technique.

6 0
2 years ago
You want to save sufficient funds to generate an annual cash flow of $55,000 a year for 25 years as retirement income. You curre
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

The correct answer is $7,056.46

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

You want to save sufficient funds to generate an annual cash flow of $55,000 a year for 25 years as retirement income. How much do you need to save each year if you can earn 7.5 percent on your savings?

Final value= 55,000*25= 1,375,000

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

Isolating A:

A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}

A= (1,375,000*0.075)/[(1.075^38)-1]= $7,056.46

5 0
1 year ago
Table 14-12 bill's birdhouses costs revenues quantity produced total cost marginal cost quantity demanded price total revenue ma
sp2606 [1]
204 is maybe the answer
6 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
The rising popularity of bubble and squeak as a breakfast item on the menu has resulted in a steady demand for peas. Over the co
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

The average inventory if they order at the optimal order quantity is 1.335

Explanation:

Accordin to the formula

Optimal order quantity = \sqrt{2*yearly demand * Order cost/Holding cost}

=\sqrt{2*52*457*3 / 0.02}

= 2670

Average inventory = Optimal order quantity / 2 = 1335.

6 0
2 years ago
A Japanese company has a bond outstanding that sells for 105.43 percent of its ¥100,000 par value. The bond has a coupon rate of
krok68 [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is 2.98% (approx.).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation for the given data are as follows:

First we calculate the current value:

Current value (CV) = 100,000 × 105.43%

= 105,430

Now, Annual coupon (AC) = 100,000 × 3.4%

= 3,400

So, we can calculate the yield to maturity by using following formula:

Yield to maturity = [AC + (Face value - CV) ÷ maturity time] ÷ (Face value + CV) ÷ 2

By putting the value we get,

= [ 3,400 + (100,000 - 105,430) ÷ 16] ÷ (100,000 + 105,430) ÷ 2

= [ 3,060.625] ÷ (102,715)

= 2.98%(Approx)

3 0
2 years ago
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