Answer:
the answer for the first question is $166667.
the answer for the second question is $210526
the answer for the third question is An inverse.
Explanation:
given information that i will invest in a $10000 scholarship that will pay forever.
the interest rate charged is 6.00% per annum therefore this is a perpetuity present value problem where there is streams of income forever therefore we use the formula :
Pv of perpetuity= Cf/r
where Cr is the cash flows payed by the single investment forever in this case $10000 then r is the interest rate of the investment amount which is 6% in this case.
Pv of Perpetuity= $10000/6%
=$166667 therefore i must invest this amount to get the scholarship running with streams of $10000 forever.
in the second problem if now the interest rate is changed from 6% to 4.75% then the amount to be invested would be :
Pv of perpetuity = $10000/4.75%
=$210526 therefore this is the amount to be invested for a forever $10000 stream of incomes for a scholarship.
the relationship is indirect cause as the interest rate decreases the present value of the perpetuity that must be invested increases.
Answer:
170,146
Explanation:
$250,000 / (1.08)5= 170,146
Answer: Price of bricks will increase
Explanation: Since Stone and bricks are substitutes to each other, a rise in the price of stone due to the new regulation will lead to a rise in the demand for bricks. Since bricks are now relatively cheaper as compared to stones after the price rise, people will use more bricks than stones. This will shift the demand for bricks to the right driving upwards the price for bricks and also increase the quantity of bricks being sold in the market.
Among the choices the situations is the best use of endnotes in a business report is letter C which is <span> There are many references and readers are unlikely to check details of sources.
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Answer:
$1,060.75
Explanation:
the yield to maturity of the second bond is to 4% semiannual or 8.16% effective annual rate.
so we have to calculate the quarterly interest rate that yields an effective annual rate of 8.16%:
0.0816 = (1 + i)⁴ - 1
1.0816 = (1 + i)⁴
⁴√1.0816 = ⁴√(1 + i)⁴
1.0198 = 1 + i
i = 0.019804 = 1.9804%
now we must discount the first bond using that effective interest rate:
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4%)²⁰ = $456.39
PV of first 20 coupon payments = $20 x 16.38304 (PV annuity factor, 1.9804%, 20 periods) = $327.66
now we must find the value of the last 20 coupon payments but at the end of year 5 = $25 x 16.38304 = $409.58. Then we calculate the PV = $409.58 / (1 + 4%)¹⁰ = $276.70
the bond's current market value = $456.39 + $327.66 + $276.70 = $1,060.75