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Setler [38]
2 years ago
5

Mahon Corporation has two production departments, Casting and Customizing. The company uses a job-order costing system and compu

tes a predetermined overhead rate in each production department. The Casting Department’s predetermined overhead rate is based on machine-hours and the Customizing Department’s predetermined overhead rate is based on direct labor-hours. At the beginning of the current year, the company had made the following estimates:
Casting Customizing
Machine-hours 20,600 16,600
Direct labor-hours 7,100 8,300
Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $140,080 $83,000
Variable manufacturing overhead per machine-hour $2.40
Variable manufacturing overhead per direct labor-hour $4.80

During the current month the company started and finished Job T138. The following data were recorded for this job: Job T138: Casting Customizing Machine-hours 80 30 Direct labor-hours 9 60 The amount of overhead applied in the Customizing Department to Job T138 is closest to:_________
Business
1 answer:
seropon [69]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Allocated MOH= $888

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The Customizing Department’s predetermined overhead rate is based on direct labor-hours.

Customizing

Direct labor-hours 8,300

Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $83,000

Variable manufacturing overhead per direct labor-hour $4.80

Job T138:

Direct labor-hours 60

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (83,000/8,300) + 4.8

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $14.8 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead to Job 138:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 14.8*60= $888

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Answer:The cash flow effect of Fey Enterprises’ restructuring during fiscal 2016 is: $9,900,000

Explanation:

The total restructuring charge accrued = $16.2 million this is so as asset write-downs are not accrued. This in term states that there is no credit to a liability account for write-downs, the assets are credited (reduced).  

Therefore,

The company paid the amount = $12,600,000 - $2,700,000 = $9,900,000 during cash during fiscal 2016.

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2 years ago
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1 year ago
Chiller Company has credit sales of $5.60 million for year 2013. Chiller estimates that 1.32% of the credit sales will not be co
dsp73

Answer:

$59,045.80

Explanation:

The following information was missing:

Accounts Receivable total $1,565,170

Assuming the company uses the percent of accounts receivable method, what is the amount that Chiller will enter as the Bad Debt Expense in the December 31 adjusting journal entry?  

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since the account balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts is $3,561 (credit), the adjusting entry should be:

December 31, 2013, bad debt expense

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2 years ago
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Answer:

Sales Returns and Allowances $140 and Accounts Receivable $140

Explanation:

When goods are returned, the sales revenue decreases through Sales Returns and Allowances which is an expense so it is debited and the goods sold on account so the Accounts Receivable which is an asset decreases so it is credited.

Date   Account Titles and Explanations    Debit   Credit

          Sales Returns and Allowances          $140

                 Accounts Receivable                                $140

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