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il63 [147K]
2 years ago
10

How is (s-t)(s/t) equivalent to (s^2/t) -s

Mathematics
2 answers:
GalinKa [24]2 years ago
8 0

<u>Explanation</u>:

For the expression (s-t)(s/t) we first use the distributive property:

(s-t)(\frac{s}{t}) \\ \\=s\times \frac{s}{t}-t\times \frac{s}{t}

We can write both s and t as fractions by using a denominator of 1:

\\=\frac{s}{1}\times \frac{s}{t}-\frac{t}{1}\times \frac{s}{t}

To multiply frations, we multiply straight across:

=\frac{s\times s}{1\times t}-\frac{t\times s}{1\times t} \\ \\=\frac{s^2}{t}-\frac{ts}{t}

In the second fraction, st/t, the t will divide out, or cancel, since it is in both the numerator and denominator:

\frac{s^2}{t}-s

tigry1 [53]2 years ago
4 0
(s-t)\cdot\dfrac{s}{t}=s\cdot\dfrac{s}{t}-t\cdot \dfrac{s}{t}=\dfrac{s^2}{t}-s
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In USA Today (Sept. 5, 1996), the results of a survey involving the use of sleepwear while traveling were listed as follows: Mal
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Answers:

a) 0.018.

b) 0.614.

c) 0.166.

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Explanations:

1) Table

----------------------Male ----------- Female ---------- Total

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Other --------------0.084 --------- 0.003 ------------ 0.087

2) Check that it is a table of relative frequencies:

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That means that each data is a probabiilty.

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relative frequency of females that use nothing = 0.018

(b) What is the probability that a traveler is male?

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(c) Assuming the traveler is male, what is the probability that he sleeps in pajamas?

It is the relative frequency of the males that sleep in pajamas divided by the relative frequency of males = 0.102 / 0.614 = 0.166

(d) What is the probability that a traveler is male if the traveler sleeps in pajamas or a T-shirt?

It is the relative frequency of males that sleep in pajamas plus that of the males that sleep in T-shirt, divided the total relative frequency of travelers that sleep in pajamas or T-shirt

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ii) relative frequency of travelers that sleep in pajamas or T-shirt = 0.102 + 0.046 + 0.073 + 0.088 = 0.309

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2 years ago
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ANSWER

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