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Anna35 [415]
1 year ago
11

The following is the income statement for the period ending December 31, Year 1, for Manatee Construction Company:

Business
1 answer:
kaheart [24]1 year ago
3 0

Answer:

Sales 8,000,000 DEBIT

Gain from the sale of investments 100,000 DEBIT

 Income Summary   8,100,000 CREDIT

--to close revenues and earnings account

Income Summary 8,250,000  DEBIT

  Cost of goods sold                  6,500,000 CREDIT

   Salaries expense                      300,000 CREDIT

   Other administrative expenses 100,000 CREDIT

   Interest expense                       900,000 CREDIT

   Advertising expense                 450,000 CREDIT

--to close expenses account

Retained Earnings 150,000 DEBIT

  Income Summary     150,000 CREDIT

Explanation:

To close the accounts we use the income summary account as an auxiliar tool

The revenues and gains have a normla balance of credit thus, we debit to close them

The expenses are normal balance debit so we credit them against income summary.

Last we transfer the Income Summary account into retained earnings.

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Brief Exercise 8-5 Blossom Company uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense and concludes that 4% of
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

The adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense for the year:

Debit Bad debts expense $13,831

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts  $13,831

Explanation:

Blossom Company uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense.

At the end of the year, Accounts receivable are $419,300 and 4% of accounts receivable will become uncollectible.

Estimated uncollectible = $419,300 x 4% = $16,772

Before adjusting, the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $2,941.

Bad debts expense = $16,772 - $2,941 = $13,831

The adjusting journal entry:

Debit Bad debts expense $13,831

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts  $13,831

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is true while making a capital investment decision?
True [87]

Answer:

b. A manager should assess the risk of the project.

Explanation:

While making a capital investment decision, a firm shall properly evaluate the capital investments , for this the manager shall access the following:

  • Required return on investment by the firm.
  • Risk associated with the project.
  • Cash flows arising from the investment.
  • Timing of the cash flows for discounting them into present value.
  • Cost associated with the project.

Therefore, correct option is :

b. A manager should assess the risk of the project.

6 0
2 years ago
To lease a new car, you must make a down payment when you sign the lease, then pay $199 per month. six months after signing his
mylen [45]

The solution for this problem is:

Let x be the number of months; and

Let y be the amount paid

We know that m is $199 per month and the two other given are 6 months and 2694.

 

y = 199 (x -6) + 2694

y = 199 (36 -6) + 2694

y = 199 (30) + 2694

y = 8664

 

Mr. Scott paid $8664 after 3 years.

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3 0
2 years ago
On January 1, Year 1, the Hoverman Corporation made amendments to its defined benefit pension plan, resulting in $150,000 of pas
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

a)

In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0

Year 1 =$150000

Subsequent years= $0

b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.

Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.

Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.

3 0
2 years ago
You bought one of Lambert Sandblasting Company's 15-year bonds one year ago for $960. These bonds pay 7 percent annually, have a
maksim [4K]

Answer:

Real return on investment: 22.9465%

Explanation:

Okay let's explain each concept we have given:

<em>Face Value</em>                                         $1,000

This is the ammount Lambert will pay at maturity

Purchase Value                                   $  960

This is the Ammount we pay for the bond

<em>Market Value of the bond today         $   ???</em>

This is what we need to determinate to see the return we got

Once we got the market Value we will do:

Market Value / Purchase Value   - 1 = rate of return

Now the <em>market value today will be the present value of the bond,</em> and the bond has the following data:

  • Mature in 14 year
  • bond rate 7% annualy.

So each year we receive the 7% of the face value ($1,000) = $70

And at the end of the bond life we receive 1,000

We need to bring this numbers at present day using the real market rate, because the economy is having inflation:

market rate  8%

inflation rate 2.7%

real rate:  

(1+rate)/(1+inflation) -1 = real rate

\frac{1.08}{1.027} -1 = real rate

real rate = 5.16%

To know the present value of the bond we will have to consider:

  • present value of an annuity of 70$ during 14 year at a rate of 5.16% =
  • present value of the 1,000 that will be pay at maturity at a rate of 5.16%

<em>The annuity will be </em>

70 * \frac{1-(1+0.0516)^-14}{0.0516} = 685.87

C * \frac{1-(1+rate)^-time}{rate} = present value

$685,87

<em>The present value of the 1,000 will be</em>  

face value/(1+rate)^time

1,000/(1+0.0516)^14 = $494,42

for a total of $1.180,29

Now we will calculate the real return on the investment:

we receive 1.180,29 for 960 so the rate is

1.180,29 /960 - 1 = 0.229465 =  22.9465%

8 0
2 years ago
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