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Pani-rosa [81]
2 years ago
6

Jordan leases a BMW from a local car dealership. The dealer informs her that the loan amount is not for the ___A___. Instead, sh

e will pay for the car’s ___B___.
Part A
A.) Sales Price
B.) Discount Price
C.) Reassessed Price
D.) Purchase Price

Part B
A.) Commercial Value
B.) Residual Value
C.) Market Value
D.) Current Value
Business
2 answers:
olchik [2.2K]2 years ago
8 0
Part a .) Reassessed Price pt b <span>A.) Commercial Value

</span>
AnnZ [28]2 years ago
5 0

Purchase Price and Residual Value are the correct answers. #PLATO4LYFE

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The balance sheet of Cattleman's Steakhouse shows assets of $86,700 and liabilities of $15,200. The fair value of the assets is
Allisa [31]

Answer:

Longhorn Goodwill=$7920

Longhorn should record goodwill on this purchase of $7920.

Explanation:

Longhorn Goodwill=Price Paid to Acquire - Total fair Assets

Total Fair Assets=Fair Value of Assets-Fair Value if Liabilities

Total Fair Assets= $89,900-$15,200

Total Fair Assets= $74,700

Longhorn Goodwill=Price Paid to Acquire - Total fair Assets

Longhorn Goodwill=$82,620-$74,700

Longhorn Goodwill=$7920

Longhorn should record goodwill on this purchase of $7920.

6 0
2 years ago
The service division of Raney Industries reported the following results for 2020. Sales Variable costs Controllable fixed costs
Blizzard [7]

Answer:

Controllable margin =$125,000

Return on investment = 20%

Explanation:

<em>Controllable margin is the difference between the sales revenue and the controllable cost. Controllable costs include variable and fixed cost directly under the control of the manager and which are influenced by his decisions.</em>

Controllable margin - Sales revenue - variable cost - controllable fixed cost

Controllable margin= $500,000 - $300,000 - 75,000 = $125,000

Controllable margin =$125,000

Return on investment = (controllable margin/ Average investment) × 100

                     = (125,000/625,000) ×  100 = 20%

Return on investment = 20%

3 0
2 years ago
A particular product line is most likely to be dropped when: Group of answer choices its total fixed costs are more than its con
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

A particular product line is most likely to be dropped when:

  • its total fixed costs are more than its contribution margin
  • its variable costs are more than its fixed costs
  • its unavoidable fixed costs are more than its contribution margin.

Explanation:

The aim of every producer is to maximize profit and to make this possible, the cost of producing a particular product should fall below the contribution margin.

In the case that the gross profit is always negative due to high cost of production, further production should be discouraged.

The decision to drop a particular product line is usually reached when:

  • Its total fixed costs are more than its contribution margin: Here, the company will run at a loss. It is sustainable to continue production..
  • Its variable costs are more than its fixed costs: This is also an unfavorable situation that does not sustain mass production. Therefore, further production should discontinue.
  • its unavoidable fixed costs are more than its contribution margin: At this rate, profit cannot be maximized. It is a lose-lose situation for the company.
8 0
2 years ago
Gia Company has the following information​ available: Cash pledged as collateral $ 2 comma 000 comma 000 U.S. Treasury bill due
stepan [7]

Answer:

$4,400,000

Explanation:

Cash Pledged                              $2,000,000

Treasury bill due in one month  $2,000,000

Cash in checking account           $400,000

Cash and Cash Equivalents         $4,400,000

Please note that treasury bill due after 90 days or maturing after 90 days are not considered cash equivalents.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Renewable Energies, Inc. (REI) paid $100,000 to purchase a windmill. The windmill was expected to have an 8 year useful life and
shtirl [24]

Answer:

The amount of depreciation on the year 5 income statement would be $4000

Explanation:

The following data were provided;

Cost of the asset = $100,000

Salvage value = $20,000

Estimated useful life= 8 years

Depreciation method = straight-line method.

Solve;

Annual depreciation expense = (cost of the asset - salvage value) ÷ useful life

= ($100,000 - $20,000) ÷ 8 = $10,000

Therefore, depreciation accumulated for the first four years = $10,000 × 4 = $40,000

At the end of year 4,

The book value of the asset = cost of the asset - accumulated depreciation

= $100,000 - $40,000 = $60,000

The revised estimated life of the asset = 14 years.

The remaining years left starting from the year 5,

= 14- 4 = 10 years

Revised annual depreciation expense

= ($60,000 book value - salvage value) ÷ useful life

= ($60,000 - $20,000) ÷ 10

= $4,000

Therefore, the amount of depreciation on the year 5 income statement would be $4000

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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