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Elan Coil [88]
2 years ago
7

Southern Rim Parts estimates its manufacturing overhead to be $396,000 and its direct labor costs to be $990,000 for year 1. The

first three jobs that Southern Rim worked on had actual direct labor costs of $58,000 for Job 301, $83,000 for Job 302, and $140,000 for Job 303. For the year, actual manufacturing overhead was $434,000 and total direct labor cost was $841,000. Manufacturing overhead is applied to jobs on the basis of direct labor costs using predetermined rates. Overhead applied in each of the inventory accounts is as follows: Work-in-process inventory $ 33,640 Finished goods inventory 84,100 Cost of goods sold 218,660 Required: Prepare an entry to prorate the under- or overapplied overhead. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
Business
1 answer:
S_A_V [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Southern Rim Parts

Journal Entry:

Account Title                        Debit           Credit

Work-in-process inventory  $9,760

Finished goods inventory   24,400

Cost of goods sold              63,440

Manufacturing overhead                      $97,600

To record the prorated under-applied overhead cost.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Estimated manufacturing overhead = $396,000

Estimated direct labor costs = $990,000

Actual manufacturing overhead = $434,000

Actual direct labor costs =  $841,000

Predetermined overhead rate = estimated overhead/estimated direct labor costs = $396,000/$990,000 = $0.40 per DL

Applied overhead:

Work-in-process inventory $ 33,640

Finished goods inventory 84,100

Cost of goods sold 218,660

Total overhead applied = $336,400

Underapplied overhead = $97,600 ($434,000 - $336,400)

Prorating the underapplied overhead to:

Work-in-process inventory $33,640/$336,400 * $97,600 = $9,760

Finished goods inventory 84,100/$336,400 * $97,600 = $24,400

Cost of goods sold 218,660/$336,400 * $97,600 = $63,440

Total underapplied overhead = $97,600

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PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

$250,000

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So you should either go to another bank (if your salary is really that high) or search a cheaper house.

7 0
2 years ago
Vermeillen Corporation uses a standard costing system in which variable manufacturing overhead is assigned to production on the
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

1 ) Variable Overhead Rate Variance = ( SR - AR )* AH

                                                         = ( $21 - $20) 3,500

                                                        = $3,500 Favorable

2 ) Labor Rate =  ( SR - AR )* AH

                      =  ( $24 - $24.9) 2,290

                      =$2,061 U

Explanation:

TOTAL =  Standard cost - Incurred cost

Standard Cost = $70,000 + $4,550

                        = $74,550

Standard Rate = $74,550 / 3,550

                        = $21

cost incurred = AR * machine hours

cost per machine hour = $70,000/3,500

                                      =$20

2) Labor Rate =  ( SR - AR )* AH

                      =  ( $24 - $24.9) 2,290

                      =$2,061 U

AR = $57,021/2,290 = $24.9

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AH = Actual hours

8 0
2 years ago
Financial information for Forever 18 includes the following selected data (in millions): ($ in millions) 2018 2017 Net income $
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Answer:

$0.4433 and $0.425

Explanation:

The computation of the earning per share is shown below:

Earning per share is

= (Net income - preference dividend) ÷ (average shares outstanding)

For 2017, it is

= ($156 - $23) ÷ (300 shares)

= $0.4433

For 2018, it is

= ($188 - $18) ÷ (400 shares)

= $0.425

We simply applied the above formula so that the earning per share could be come for both the years

6 0
2 years ago
San Ruiz Interiors provides design services to residential and commercial clients. The residential services produce a contributi
Sliva [168]

Answer:

If closed the operating income  will decrease by 50,000

Is a better scenario to continue with the residential sercives

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8 0
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Answer:

All of them.

Explanation:

For considering the annuity formula we can determinate all the proposed factor:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

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r = represent the discopunt rate

while time or "n" represent the numebr of cashflow we have to calcualte the present value.

The timing refer wether the payment are made at the beginning or end of the period.

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8 0
2 years ago
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