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Ivahew [28]
2 years ago
9

In applying the treasury stock method of computing diluted earnings per share, when is it appropriate to use the average market

price of common stock during the year as the assumed repurchase price?
a. when the average market price is lower than the exercise price
b. when the average market price is higher than the exercise price
c. never
d. always
Business
1 answer:
castortr0y [4]2 years ago
3 0
I believe that 2 is the answer
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According to Twitter’s amended S-1 filed November 4, 2013, approximately how many shares of common stock would be outstanding af
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

544696816

Explanation:

544696816 shares of common stock were outstanding after the offering on the floor of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

0 0
2 years ago
The inverse demand for a homogeneous-product Stackelberg duopoly is P = 16,000 - 4Q. The cost structures for the leader and the
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Step-by-step explanation:

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose that your colleague has accidentally spilled coffee on his laptop and the file containing your firm\'s cost data has bee
Wittaler [7]

Solution:

Q      MC       FC      VC     TC      AFC     AVC     ATC

0       NA       50        0       50       NA      NA       NA

1        50      50       50      105       50       50      105

2        19       50      64       104       20       32       52

3       85        40      149      189    13.33    49.67  63.00

4      223       40      372     412       10        93        103  

TC=FC+VC

FC=40

VC=TC-FC

MC=change in TC

AFC=FC/Q

AVC=VC/0

ATC=TC/0

a) TC when 0=0 = 40 because FC = 40 remains constant and the firm still incurs a total cost equal to its FC when it produces zero output.

b) MC for first unit = 45

c) ATC of 3rd unit = 63

d) AVC for 4th unit = 93      

6 0
2 years ago
Fontaine Inc. recently reported net income of $2 million. It has 500,000 shares of common stock, which currently trades at $40 a
Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

$50

Explanation:

Given,

Current Net income = $2,000,000

No. of common shares today = 500,000

Current market price per share = $40

Anticipated Net income in 1 year = $ 3,250,000

Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year = 500,000 +150000 =650,000

From this data, then

The current Earnings Per Share(EPS) = \frac{2,000,000}{500,000} = 4

Current Price/Earning ratio = \frac{ Price per share}{EPS} = \frac{40}{4} = 10

Anticipated EPS in 1 year=\frac{Anticipated Net income in 1 year }{Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year } = \frac{3,250,000}{650,000} = $5

If the company's P/E ratio remain as that of the current at 10, then

The anticipated price of stock in 1 year = Anticipated EPS * P/E ratio in 1 year

 = $5 *10 = $50

4 0
2 years ago
Smithson Company uses a job-order costing system and has two manufacturing departments— Molding and Fabrication. The company pro
vazorg [7]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

1)

<u>a) First, we need to calculate the total estimated overhead:</u>

Total overhead= 1,100,000 + (5*50,000)= 1,350,000

<u>Now, we can determine the overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,350,000/50,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $27 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 27*20,000

Total cost= $1,600,000

Job C-200:

Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 27*30,000

Total cost= $1,760,000

c) Selling price= 150% of manufacturing costs

Job D-75= 1,600,000*1.5= $2,400,000

Job C-200= 1,760,000*1.5= $2,640,000

d) COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS=  0 + (1,600,000 + 1,760,000) - 0

COGS= $3,360,000

<u>2) </u>

<u>a) </u>

Molding= (800,000/20,000) + 5= $45 per machine hour

Assembly= (300,000/30,000) + 5= $15 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 45*20,000

Total cost= $$1,960,000

Job C-200:

Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 15*30,000

Total cost= $1,400,000

<u>c) </u>

Job D-75= 1,960,000*1.5= $2,940,000

Job C-200= 1,400,000*1.5= $2,100,000

<u>d)</u> COGS= 0 + (1,960,000 + 1,400,000) + 0

COGS= $3,360,000

4 0
2 years ago
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