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2 years ago

7

You are the scheduler for a large commercial building project. The schedule that you prepared (based on feedback from the projec

t manager) falls 15 days short of the owner’s deadline. The project manager decides to write a memo to all of the subcontractors, requiring them to work 6 days per week, 10 hours per day. You ask the project manager to wait until you determine the most efficient way to crash the project. Summarize your argument in 4 short items to convince the project manager to go with a certain accelerating plan that focuses on the critical path and not all activities.

1 answer:

guapka [62]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The summary of the given question is summarized in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

Versus six days each week and ten hrs of work a day including all contracting companies as well as every other process, this same current acceleration account provides lower.
Unless the suggested acceleration strategy is chosen, the necessary timing encoding will be user-friendly such essential operations.
Rather some essential route operations throughout the current acceleration strategy will necessitate increased funding.
It does not overload the majority of that same capital.

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simple power system consists of a dc generator connected to a load center via a transmission line. The load power is 100 kW. The

Roman55 [17]

Answer:

A. ) 591.7 v

B.) 991.7v

C.) 59.7%

D.) 47.9 Kw

E.) 247925 W

F.) 59.7 %

Explanation:

Given that a simple power system consists of a dc generator connected to a load center via a transmission line. The load power is 100 kW. The transmission line is 100 km copper wire of 3 cm diameter. If the voltage at the load side is 400 V,

Let first calculate the resistance in the wire.

The resistivity (rho) of a copper wire is 1.673×10^-8 ohm metres

Resistance R =( L× rho)/A

Where Area = πr^2 = π × 0.015^2

Area = 0.00071 m^2

R = (100000 × 1.673×10^-8) / 0.00071

Resistance in wire = 2.367 ohms

Then let calculate the resistance in the load.

Also, since Power P = V^2 /R

Make R the subject of formula

R = V^2/ P

R = 400^2/100000

Resistance in load = 1.6 Ohms

Current l = V / R

I = 400/1.6 = 250 Ampere

a.) Voltage drop across the line V line will be achieved by using Ohms law.

V = I R

V = 250 × 2.367

V = 591.7 v

B.) Voltage at the source side Vsource will be

V = V line + V load

V = 400 + 591.7

V = 991.7 v

C.) Percentage of the voltage drop Vline /Vsource

591.7/991.7 × 100 = 59.7%

D.) Line losses

P = I V

P = 250 × 591.7

P = 147925 W

Power loss = 147925 - 100000

Power loss = 47,925 W

Power loss = 47.9 Kw

E.) Power delivered by the source

P = IV

P = 250 × 991.7 = 247925 W

F.) System efficiency

Efficiency = power line / power source × 100

Efficiency = 147925 / 247925 × 100

Efficiency = 59.7 %

5 0

2 years ago

A 10-m long steel linkage is to be designed so that it can transmit 2 kN of force without stretching more than 5 mm nor having a

Fed [463]

Answer:

<em>minimum required diameter of the steel linkage is 3.57 mm</em>

<em></em>

Explanation:

original length of linkage l = 10 m

force to be transmitted f = 2 kN = 2000 N

extension e = 5 mm= 0.005 m

maximum stress σ = 200 N/mm^2 = $2*10^{8} N/m^{2}$

maximum stress allowed on material σ = force/area

imputing values,

200 = 2000/area

area = 2000/( $2*10^{8}$ ) = $10^{-5}$ m^2

recall that area = $\pi d^{2} /4$

$10^{-5}$ = $\frac{3.142*d^{2} }{4}$ = $0.7855d^{2}$

$d^{2} = \frac{10^{-5} }{0.7855}$ = $1.273*10^{-5}$

$d = \sqrt{1.273*10^{-5} }$ = $3.57*10^{-3}$ m = 3.57 mm

<em>maximum diameter of the steel linkage d = 3.57 mm</em>

4 0

2 years ago

The pump of a water distribution system is powered by a 6-kW electric motor whose efficiency is 95 percent. The water flow rate

Sonja [21]

Answer:

a) Mechanical efficiency ( $\varepsilon$ )=63.15% b) Temperature rise= 0.028ºC

Explanation:

For the item a) you have to define the mechanical power introduced (Wmec) to the system and the power transferred to the water (Pw).

The power input (electric motor) is equal to the motor power multiplied by the efficiency. Thus, $Wmec=0.95*6kW=5.7 kW$ .

Then, the power transferred (Pw) to the fluid is equal to the flow rate (Q) multiplied by the pressure jump $\Delta P$ . So $P_W = Q*\Delta P=0.018m^3/s * 200x10^3 Pa=3600W$ .

The efficiency is defined as the ratio between the output energy and the input energy. Then, the mechanical efficiency is $\varepsilon=3.6kW/5.7kW=0.6315=63.15\%$

For the b) item you have to consider that the inefficiency goes to the fluid as heat. So it is necessary to use the equation of the heat capacity but in a "flux" way. Calling <em>H</em> to the heat transfered to the fluid, the specif heat of the water and $\rho$ the density of the water:

$[tex]H=(5.7-3.6) kW=\rho*Q*c*\Delta T=1000kg/m^3*0.018m^3/s*4186J/(kg \ºC)*\Delta T$ [/tex]

Finally, the temperature rise is:

$\Delta T=2100/75348 \ºC=0.028 \ºC$

7 0

2 years ago

The 8-mm-thick bottom of a 220-mm-diameter pan may be made from aluminum (k = 240 W/m ⋅ K) or copper (k = 390 W/m ⋅ K). When use

Artemon [7]

Answer:

For aluminum 110.53 C

For copper 110.32 C

Explanation:

Heat transmission through a plate (considering it as an infinite plate, as in omitting the effects at the borders) follows this equation:

$q = \frac{k * A * (th - tc)}{d}$

Where

q: heat transferred

k: conduction coeficient

A: surface area

th: hot temperature

tc: cold temperature

d: thickness of the plate

Rearranging the terms:

d * q = k * A * (th - tc)

$\frac{d * q}{k * A} = th - tc$

$th = \frac{d * q}{k * A} + tc$

The surface area is:

$A = \frac{\pi * d^2}{4}$

$A = \frac{\pi * 0.22^2}{4} = 0.038 m^2$

If the pan is aluminum:

$th = \frac{0.008 * 600}{240 * 0.038} + 110 = 110.53 C$

If the pan is copper:

$th = \frac{0.008 * 600}{390 * 0.038} + 110 = 110.32 C$

7 0

2 years ago

Your task is to fill in the missing parts of the C code to get a program equivalent to the generated assembly code. Recall that

Rudik [331]

Answer:

See Explaination

Explanation:

//Function

long loop (long x, long n)

{

//Declare a variable named result and initialize it to zero

long result = 0;

//Declare a variable named mask

long mask;

//For loop

for(mask = 1; mask != 0; mask = mask << (n & 0xFF))

{

//Calculate

result | = (x&mask);

}

//Return result

return result;

}

6 0

2 years ago