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iren [92.7K]
2 years ago
16

Kevin says that lines p and m will eventually intersect. Lines A and B intersect. Plane A contains lines p, m, and n. Line n is

horizontal on the plane. Lines p and m are both going in the same direction and are identical. Plane B contains vertical line l which forms a right angle with line n. Is Kevin correct?
Mathematics
1 answer:
ANTONII [103]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

No, because they are parallel.

Step-by-step explanation:

The lines p and m will not intersect, so Kevin is not correct.

It is given that planes A and B intersects. The plane A contains the line p, m and n on its plane. The lines p and m are parallel to each other. They are identical and move in the same direction.

Since the line p and m are parallel, they will not meet each other at any point because parallel lines does not intersect or meet at a point, they run parallelly along each other.

So, line p and m will not intersect.

Thus the answer is " No, because they are parallel."

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Four new word processing software programs are to be compared by measuring the speed with which various standard tasks can be co
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A delivery truck is transporting boxes of two sizes: large and small. The combined weight of a large box and a small box is 80 p
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a)P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

b) P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298

c) P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

So then we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Part a

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complenet rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

So then we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

3 0
2 years ago
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