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2 years ago

In the diagram above (not to scale), Vx/y = 12.57 meters/second and

Mathematics

2 answers:

EastWind [94]2 years ago

8 0

The first vector's speed is 12.57 meters for one second
The second vector's speed is 5.21 meters for one second
The total distance is 12.57+5.21 = 17.78 meters over two seconds
Hence the speed is 17.78 / 2 = 8.89m/s

Maru [420]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

A. 7.36 meters/second

Step-by-step explanation:

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Tonya plans to join a fitness club. She researched the costs to join different clubs in her area and found that there is a linea

Blababa [14]

Answer: The correct answer is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

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1 year ago

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Levi invested $8,500 in an account paying an interest rate of 3.4% compounded continuously. Assuming no deposits or withdrawals

mixas84 [53]

Answer:

433.44

Step-by-step explanation:

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1 year ago

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In a scale drawing of an apartment 1 centimeter represents 2 3/4 feet. if the length of the kitchens is 4 1/2 cm on the scale dr

rusak2 [61]

Given: 1 cm = 2 3/4 ft ; kitchen length = 4 1/2 cm
2 3/4 = 11/4; 4 1/2= 9/2

11/4 x 9/2 = 99/8 =12 3/8

OR You could use decimals

2 3/4 = 2.75 ; 4 1/2 = 4.5
2.75 x 4.5 = 12.375
12.375 = 12 375/1000 or 12 3/8

5 0

2 years ago

What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?

astraxan [27]

ANSWER

The value of the expression is
$- 1$

EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
${i}^{2}$

The expression given to us is,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4}$

We use the fact that
${i}^{2} = - 1$
to simplify the above expression.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{4}$

This implies,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}$

We substitute to obtain,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times - 1 \times - 1 \times - 1\times - 1 \times - 1$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times 1 \times 1 \times - 1 = - 1$

Method 2: Use indices to solve.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}$

This implies that,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{10}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( {{i}^{2}} )^{5}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( - 1 )^{5} = - 1$

8 0

2 years ago

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Michael earns $21 per hour and works 40 hours per week. How many overtime hours would he have to worky in a week for his time-an

Alex73 [517]

Answer:

27 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

The regular hours are paid normally, 21/hr hence working for 40 hours, Michael earns 40*21=$840

To work x hours paid overtime as 1.5 of the normal rate, the rate would be $21*1.5=$31.5/hr

X hours multiplied by rate of $31.5/hr should be at least equal to $840

31.5x>=840

X>=840/31.5>=26.6667 hours and when rounded off

X is 27 hours

6 0

2 years ago