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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
1 year ago
6

Harland just got his second major credit card, so his credit score rose from 671 to 711. According to the following table for a

$150,000 mortgage, how much less per year would Harland have to pay on a $150,000 mortgage with the new credit score?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Serggg [28]1 year ago
6 0

$2004 Apex answer !!

amm18121 year ago
5 0

Answer:

2004

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
There are four steps for converting the equation x2 + y2 + 12x + 2y – 1 = 0 into standard form by completing the square. complet
goblinko [34]
Let's first write each step of the procedure:
 Step 1: 
 group the x terms together and the terms and together, and move the constant term to the other side of the equation:
 x² + 12x + y² + 2y = 1
 Step 2:
 
determine (b ÷ 2) 2 for the x and y terms.
 (12 ÷ 2) 2 = 36
 and
 (2 ÷ 2) 2 = 1
 Step 3:
 add the values to both sides of the equation.
 x2 + 12x + 36 + y2 + 2y + 1 = 1 + 36 + 1
 Step 4:
 write each trinomial to binomial squared, and simplify the right side.
 (x + 6) 2 + (y + 1) 2 = 38
 Answer:
 the last step is:
 (x + 6) 2 + (y + 1) 2 = 38
3 0
1 year ago
Maria is buying new carpet. Her bedroom is in the shape of a square and the length id each side is 12 feet. Write and simplify a
satela [25.4K]

Answer: She needed 144 square feet of carpet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Maria is buying new carpet. Her bedroom is in the shape of a square.

The length of each side is 12 feet.

We know that the area of square = (side)^2

So , the area of the bedroom = (12)^2  [which is an exponential expression]

Simplify it

The area of the bedroom = 12\times12=144\ \text{ft}^2

Also, the carpet she needed = Area of the bedroom.

Thus , She needed 144 square feet of carpet.

4 0
1 year ago
Given: WXYZ is a parallelogram, ZX ≅ WY
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: WXYZ is a parallelogram, ZX ≅ WY

Prove: WXYZ is a rectangle

Proof:

Step 1. WXYZ is a parallelogram and ZX ≅ WY (Given)

Step 2. ZY ≅ WX (Opposite sides of parallelogram are congruent)

Step 3. YX ≅ YX  (Reflexive Property)

Step 4. Consider △ZYX and △WXY, we have

ZX ≅ WY (Given)

ZY ≅ WX (Opposite sides of parallelogram are congruent)

YX ≅ YX  (Reflexive Property)

Thus, by SSS rule, △ZYX ≅ △WXY

Step 5. By CPCTC, ∠ZYX ≅ ∠WXY

Step 6.  m∠ZYX ≅ m∠WXY (Definition of congruency)

Step 7.  m∠ZYX + m∠WXY = 180° ( consecutive ∠s in a parallelogram are supplementary)

Step 8. m∠ZYX + m∠ZYX = 180° (Substitution)

Step 9. 2(m∠ZYX) = 180° (Simplification)

Step 10.  m∠ZYX = 90° (Dividing property of equality)

Step 11. WXYZ is a rectangle (Rectangle angle theorem)

Hence proved.

5 0
1 year ago
A researcher wishes her patients to try a new medicine for depression. How many different ways can she select 5 patients from 50
Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

she can select 10 different ways

7 0
1 year ago
A probability calculator is required on this problem; answer to six decimal places. Suppose we will spin the wheel pictured 400
KiRa [710]

Answer:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=400, p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=400*0.2=80 \geq 10

n(1-p)=400*(1-0.2)=320 \geq 10

So we see that we satisfy the conditions and then we can apply the approximation.

If we appply the approximation the new mean and standard deviation are:

E(X)=np=400*0.2=80

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{400*0.2(1-0.2)}=8

So then we can approximate the random variable as X \sim N(\mu = 80, \sigma = 8)

And we want this probability:

P(90< X< 110)

We can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{x -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

8 0
1 year ago
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