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2 years ago

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Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory. He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.

He wants to figure out his per-diem (daily) pay, so he divides 40,000 by 365, which yields $109.59. Is this the correct answer?

2 answers:

Delicious77 [7]2 years ago

5 0

No because 40,000 doesn't include the paid vacations and holidays. the 40,000 is likely the working salary

JulijaS [17]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is :

Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory.

He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.

So total paid holidays become = $14+5=19$ days

Subtracting 19 from 365 days and assuming that Jerry works for 365 days a year.

We get = $365-19=346$ days

So, his per day salary will be = $\frac{40000}{346}= 115.60$

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

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Amar cycles at a speed of 18km/h.

damaskus [11]

Answer:

<em>The distance between the two villages is 16.5 Km</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Constant Speed Motion</u>

It's a type of motion in which the distance of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal period of time.

If v is the constant speed, the object travels a distance x in a time t, given by the equation:

x=vt

Amar cycles at v=18 Km/h for t=55 minutes. We need to calculate the distance traveled between the two villages.

Since the speed and the time are given in different units, we convert the time to hours, recalling that 1 hour=60 minute.

t=55 min = 55/60 hours

For the sake of precision, we won't operate the division so far. Compute the distance:

x=18 *55/60=16.5 Km

The distance between the two villages is 16.5 Km

7 0

2 years ago

Find solution to the system of linear equations. 5x1 + x2 = 0 , 25x1 + 5x2 = 0

Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

the system of equation has infinite solution

Step-by-step explanation:

$5x_1 + x_2 = 0$ , $25x_1 + 5x_2 = 0$

Solve the first equation for x_2

Subtract 5x1 on both sides

$5x_1 + x_2 = 0$

$x_2 =-5x_1$

Now substitute -5x1 on second equation

$25x_1 + 5x_2 = 0$

$25x_1 + 5(-5x_1)= 0$

$25x_1-25x_1= 0$

0=0

So the system of equation has infinite solution

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A prticular type of tennis racket comes in a midsize versionand an oversize version. sixty percent of all customers at acertain

svetlana [45]

Answer:

a) P(x≥6)=0.633

b) P(4≤x≤8)=0.8989 (one standard deviation from the mean).

c) P(x≤7)=0.8328

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We can model this a binomial experiment. The probability of success p is the proportion of customers that prefer the oversize version (p=0.60).

The number of trials is n=10, as they select 10 randomly customers.

We have to calculate the probability that at least 6 out of 10 prefer the oversize version.

This can be calculated using the binomial expression:

$P(x\geq6)=\sum_{k=6}^{10}P(k)=P(6)+P(7)+P(8)+P(9)+P(10)\\\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\geq6)=0.2508+0.215+0.1209+0.0403+0.006=0.633$

b) We first have to calculate the standard deviation from the mean of the binomial distribution. This is expressed as:

$\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{10*0.6*0.4}=\sqrt{2.4}=1.55$

The mean of this distribution is:

$\mu=np=10*0.6=6$

As this is a discrete distribution, we have to use integer values for the random variable. We will approximate both values for the bound of the interval.

$LL=\mu-\sigma=6-1.55=4.45\approx4\\\\UL=\mu+\sigma=6+1.55=7.55\approx8$

The probability of having between 4 and 8 customers choosing the oversize version is:

$P(4\leq x\leq 8)=\sum_{k=4}^8P(k)=P(4)+P(5)+P(6)+P(7)+P(8)\\\\\\P(x=4) = \binom{10}{4} p^{4}q^{6}=210*0.1296*0.0041=0.1115\\\\P(x=5) = \binom{10}{5} p^{5}q^{5}=252*0.0778*0.0102=0.2007\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\\\P(4\leq x\leq 8)=0.1115+0.2007+0.2508+0.215+0.1209=0.8989$

c. The probability that all of the next ten customers who want this racket can get the version they want from current stock means that at most 7 customers pick the oversize version.

Then, we have to calculate P(x≤7). We will, for simplicity, calculate this probability substracting P(x>7) from 1.

$P(x\leq7)=1-\sum_{k=8}^{10}P(k)=1-(P(8)+P(9)+P(10))\\\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\leq 7)=1-(0.1209+0.0403+0.006)=1-0.1672=0.8328$

7 0

2 years ago

What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?

astraxan [27]

ANSWER

The value of the expression is
$- 1$

EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
${i}^{2}$

The expression given to us is,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4}$

We use the fact that
${i}^{2} = - 1$
to simplify the above expression.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{4}$

This implies,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}$

We substitute to obtain,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times - 1 \times - 1 \times - 1\times - 1 \times - 1$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times 1 \times 1 \times - 1 = - 1$

Method 2: Use indices to solve.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}$

This implies that,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{10}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( {{i}^{2}} )^{5}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( - 1 )^{5} = - 1$

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The necklace charm shown has two parts, each shaped like a trapezoid with identical dimensions. What is the total area, in squar

pashok25 [27]

The area of the trapezoid can be calculated through the equation,
A = (b₁ + b₂)h / 2
where b₁ and b₂ are the bases and h is the height. Substituting the known values from the given,
A = (25mm + 32mm)(15 mm) / 2
A = 427.5 mm²
Since there are two trapezoids in the necklace, the area calculated is to be multiplied by two to get the total area.
total area = (427.5 mm²)(2)
<em>total area = 855 mm²</em>

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers