I think that the answer might be C but I’m not to sure
The author did not limit himself to literal language because he knew that figurative language would give more expressiveness and depth to the text.
As you did not show the text to which your question refers, it is not possible to show the use of figurative language in the text, but it is possible to state the reasons that led the author to use this type of language.
In the question above, we can see that the author made use of the simile, a figure of speech that allows the comparison between two elements, increasing the meaning between them.
This objective is very common in authors who use any type of figurative language in their texts. This is because figurative language can:
- Intensify parts of the text.
- Make the text deeper.
- Show more expressiveness.
- Create more impactful meanings.
- Force the reader's thinking.
- Approach topics with greater delicacy, or more aggressiveness.
It is important to emphasize that figurative language does not have a literal meaning of the words, but something more subjunctive, unlike the literal language.
More information on the link:
brainly.com/question/1430277?referrer=searchResults
I would say B-correct (By carefully organizing your thoughts) and putting your writing into organizing i know when i have it like that its way more easy for me to understand what your trying explain to the other reader
The lack of information about Shakespeare presents questions of credibility and reliability. People may believe that Shakespeare was a front to hide the identity of the real author/authors, and that Shakespeare did not write plays credited to him rather than another discredited author.
ME. HIM. HER. THEM
The information about Yale will interest Cynthia more than ME or HIM or HER or them.
It will interest me. It will interest him.It will interest her.It will interest them.
The pronoun used in the sentence is the direct object of the sentence.