Answer:
a) p-hat (sampling distribution of sample proportions)
b) Symmetric
c) σ=0.058
d) Standard error
e) If we increase the sample size from 40 to 90 students, the standard error becomes two thirds of the previous standard error (se=0.667).
Step-by-step explanation:
a) This distribution is called the <em>sampling distribution of sample proportions</em> <em>(p-hat)</em>.
b) The shape of this distribution is expected to somewhat normal, symmetrical and centered around 16%.
This happens because the expected sample proportion is 0.16. Some samples will have a proportion over 0.16 and others below, but the most of them will be around the population mean. In other words, the sample proportions is a non-biased estimator of the population proportion.
c) The variability of this distribution, represented by the standard error, is:
d) The formal name is Standard error.
e) If we divided the variability of the distribution with sample size n=90 to the variability of the distribution with sample size n=40, we have:
If we increase the sample size from 40 to 90 students, the standard error becomes two thirds of the previous standard error (se=0.667).
You want to round 905,154 to the nearest ten-thousands place. The ten-thousands place in your number is shown by the bold underlined digit here:
9<em><u>0</u></em>5,154
To round 905,154 to the nearest ten-thousands place...
The digit in the ten-thousands place in your number is the 0. To begin the rounding, look at the digit one place to the right of the 0, or the 5, which is in the thousands place.
Since the 5 is greater than or equal to 5, we'll round our number up by
Adding 1 to the 0 in the ten-thousands place, making it a 1.
and by changing all digits to the right of this new 1 into zeros.
The result is: 910,000.
So, 905,154 rounded to the ten-thousands place is 910,000.
To find the mean you must add up all the numbers you have together and then divide the buy the amount of numbers you added. When you add these numbers up you get 30, and we have 5 numbers here, when we divide 30 by 5 we get 6. So, Tara is correct in saying that the mean is 6.
6 total beads
1 is yellow
1 is blue
1/6 of getting a yellow
1/6 of getting a blue and
1/6 of getting a yellow again
1/6 * 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/216 probability
When you regroup you are basically breaking down the problem.
You would do 60 + 40=?
Then you would do 4 + 3= ?
Your answer would come out to 107
