Answer:
Explanation:
Goodwill is defined as the excess in amount of the purchase price of a company over the fair value at acquisition.It is intangible in nature , meaning it can not be physically separated from the other assets. Example are patent , brand name , good employee relation.
1.
Goodwill calculation
Purchase price - $2,500,000
Fair value - $1,800,000
Goodwill - $700,000
2.
No
Under the IAS 36, impairment of assets , goodwill is not amortized but annually tested for impairment as amortization is applicable to intangible assets with a definite useful life while intangible assets with indefinite useful life are annually tested for impairment to evaluate a loss in value experienced.
3
No
Under IAS 38 , Internally generated goodwill are not recognized as no related cost is incurred towards achieving a future benefit
Answer:
The correct answer is 9.56%
Explanation:
Before tax cost of Debt = rate(nper,pmt,pv,fv) * 2
nper = 25*2 = 50
pmt = 1000*12%*1/2 = 60
pv = 1230.51
fv = 1000
Before tax cost of Debt = rate(50,60,-1230.51,1000)*2
Before tax cost of Debt = 9.56%
Complete question:
Bressler’s would like to sell 600shares of stock using the Dutch auction method. The bids received are as follows:
Bidder Quantity Price $
A 100 818
B 300 17
C 400 16
D 700 15
The bids received are as follows: Bidder A will receive _____ shares and pay a price per share of ____.
Solution:
Bidder A's quantity = [600 /(100 + 300 + 400)] ×100
= 75 shares
All successful bidders will pay $16 a share
The bids received are as follows:
Bidder A will receive 75 shares and pay a price per share of $16 .
A Dutch auction is a trading system (such as an initial open bid) whereby the stock price offered is reduced before appropriate offers are available for selling all shares. Each stock is then sold at that price.
Answer:
$1,060.75
Explanation:
the yield to maturity of the second bond is to 4% semiannual or 8.16% effective annual rate.
so we have to calculate the quarterly interest rate that yields an effective annual rate of 8.16%:
0.0816 = (1 + i)⁴ - 1
1.0816 = (1 + i)⁴
⁴√1.0816 = ⁴√(1 + i)⁴
1.0198 = 1 + i
i = 0.019804 = 1.9804%
now we must discount the first bond using that effective interest rate:
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4%)²⁰ = $456.39
PV of first 20 coupon payments = $20 x 16.38304 (PV annuity factor, 1.9804%, 20 periods) = $327.66
now we must find the value of the last 20 coupon payments but at the end of year 5 = $25 x 16.38304 = $409.58. Then we calculate the PV = $409.58 / (1 + 4%)¹⁰ = $276.70
the bond's current market value = $456.39 + $327.66 + $276.70 = $1,060.75
