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yaroslaw [1]
2 years ago
3

Although tickets to the Rams/Vikings NFC Championship game had a face value of roughly $50, numerous ticket holders willingly so

ld their tickets for $200 (and up). Consider $200 as the maximum price obtained for a ticket. Excluding other expenses, an economist would say the opportunity cost of attending the game was
Business
1 answer:
Pachacha [2.7K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: More than $200.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.

If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.

The opportunity cost of attending the game is more than $200 because otherwise he would spent that time in working somewhere which gives him some money. So, this is the opportunity cost of attending the game.

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If alan is risk-averse, then he will always
frutty [35]
I think the most appropriate answer would be D. Because it has a 50 percent chance of winning $X and a 50 percent chance of losing $Y.



I hope it helped you!
8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following statements regarding quality-control inspections is true? a.Inspection requires product tear down. b.Insp
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer: The answer is C. Inspection requires both product tear down and product reassembly.

Explanation: The aim of quality-control inspections is to ascertain whether a product has been made according to specifications, and whether there are any defects in the products.

Therefore quality-control inspections will involve product tear down, in order to check the component parts of a product for quality assurance, and product reassembly is carried out after the product tear down to reassemble the products if it is discovered that it meets quality standard.

4 0
2 years ago
"Big Burger has 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a market price of $40 a share. There are 10,000 shares of 8 percen
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

weight % of equity = 76.05%

weight % of preferred stock = 5.70%

weight % of debt  = 18.25%

Explanation:

calculation for equity:

total number of equity is 100,000

market price of stock = 40

so total value of stock = 40 × 100,000 = 4,000,000

calculation for preferred stock:

total number of share is 10,000

market price of stock = 30

so total value of stock = 30 × 10,000 = 300,000

calculation for debt:

total number of bond is 1,000

market price of  bonds = 960

so total value of stock = 960 × 1,000 = 960,000

total value = 4,000,000 + 300,000 + 960,000 = 5,260,000

Calculation of weight percentage

weight % of equity  =\frac{4,000,000}{5,260,000} = 0.7604 = 76.04%

weight % of preferred stock   = \frac{300,000}{5,260,000} = 0.0570 = 5.70%

weight % of debt  = \frac{960,000}{5,260,000} = 0.1825 = 18.25\%

6 0
2 years ago
Use what you have learned about risk and return to complete these sentences.
vfiekz [6]

Answer:

To minimize risk, investors should  investigate the market and diversify its portfolio.

Interest that builds on the principle and the interest already gained is  compound interest

Money invested in a CD always have a fixed rate of return and is less risky than money used to purchase a home.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 3 more answers
Assume the current Treasury yield curve shows that the spot rates for six​ months, one​ year, and one and a half years are 1 %1%
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

present value of bond = $1042.96

Explanation:

given data

spot rates for six​ months = 1%

spot rates for one and = 1.1%​

spot rates for one and half years = 1.3%​

price = $1000

coupon bond = 4.25%

time = 6 month

solution

we get here first price on bond paid that is

coupon paid = $1000 × 4.25 × 0.5   = $21.25

we get here present value of 6 month and 1 year and 1 and half  year

present value  =   \frac{coupon\ payment }{(1+\frac{spot \ rate}{2})^t}     ..............1

present value of 6 month = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.1}{2})^1}    = 20.23

present value of 1 year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.011}{2})^2}   = 21.01  

present value of 1 year and half year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^2}   =  20.97

and

now we get present value of par value in 1 and half year

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{par\ value}{(1+\frac{spot rate}{2})^3}  

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{1000}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^3}

present value of par value in 1 and half year = 980.75

so

present value of bond will be as

present value of bond = 20.23 + 21.01 + 20.97 + 980.75

present value of bond = $1042.96

5 0
2 years ago
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