Six years ago, an 80-kW diesel electric set cost $160,000. The cost index for this class of equipment six years ago was 187 and
1 answer:
Answer:
new boiler total cost = $229706.825
new boiler total cost = $127512
Explanation:
given data
power p1 = 80 kW
cost C = $160000
cost index CI 1 = 187
cost index CI 2= 194
cost capacity factor f = 0.6
power p2 = 120 kW
current cost = $18000
to find out
total cost and cost of 40 kW
solution
we consider here CN cost for new boiler and CO cost for old boiler
and x is capacity of new boiler
first we find old boiler current cost that is
current cost CO = C × .............1
put here value
current cost = 160000 ×
new current cost = $165989.304
and
use here power sizing technique for 124 kW
CN/CO = ...............2
put here value and find CN
CN/CO =
CN / 165989.304 =
CN = 211706.825
so new cost = $211706.825
so
total cost for new boiler is
total cost = new cost + current cost
total cost = 211706.825 + 18000
new boiler total cost = $229706.825
and
for 40 kW new cost will be
use equation 2
CN/CO =
CN / 165989.304 =
CN = 109512
so new cost is $109512
so
total cost for new boiler is
total cost = new cost + current cost
total cost = 109512 + 18000
new boiler total cost = $127512
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Answer:
The roll force is 1.59 MN
The power required in this operation is 644.96 kW
Explanation:
Given;
width of the annealed copper, w = 228 m
thickness of the copper, h₀ = 25 mm
final thickness, hf = 20 mm
roll radius, R = 300 mm
The roll force is given by;
where;
w is the width of the annealed copper
is average true stress of the strip in the roll gap
L is length of arc in contact, and for frictionless situation it is given as;
Now, determine the average true stress, , for the annealed copper;
The absolute value of the true strain, ε = ln(25/20)
ε = 0.223
from true stress vs true strain graph; at true strain of 0.223, the true stress is 280 MPa.
Then, the average true stress = ¹/₂(280 MPa.) = 180 MPa
Finally determine the roll force;
The power required in this operation is given by;
Answer:
a.) -147V
b.) -120V
c.) 51V
Explanation:
a.) Equation for potential difference is the integral of the electrical field from a to b for the voltage V_ba = V(b)-V(a).
b.) The problem becomes easier to solve if you draw out the circuit. Since potential at Q is 0, then Q is at ground. So voltage across V_MQ is the same as potential at V_M.
c.) Same process as part b. Draw out the circuit and you'll see that the potential a point V_N is the same as the voltage across V_NP added with the 2V from the other box.
Honestly, these things take practice to get used to. It's really hard to explain this.
