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kiruha [24]
2 years ago
10

Channing Corporation makes two products (A1 and B2) that require direct materials, direct labor, and overhead. The following dat

a refer to operations expected for next month. A1 B2 Total Revenue $ 190,000 $ 570,000 $ 760,000 Direct material 75,000 150,000 225,000 Direct labor 58,000 137,750 195,750 Overhead: Direct-material related 54,000 Direct-labor related 50,895 Required: Channing uses a two-stage cost allocation system, It uses direct-material costs to allocate direct-materials related overhead and direct-labor costs to allocate direct-labor related overhead costs. a. Compute the direct-material related overhead rate for next month. b. Compute the direct-labor related overhead rate for next month. c. What is the total overhead allocated to product A1 next month? d. What is the total overhead allocated to product B2 next month?
Business
1 answer:
vitfil [10]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Instructions are listed below

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Channing uses a two-stage cost allocation system, It uses direct-material costs to allocate direct-materials related overhead and direct labor costs to allocate direct-labor related overhead costs.

A1

Direct material 75,000

Direct labor 58,000

B2

Direct material 150,000

Direct labor 137,750

Overhead:

Direct-material related 54,000

Direct-labor related 50,895

A) Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 225,000/54000= 4.17 per direct material

B) Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 195,750/50895= 3.85 per direct labor

C) Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH (A1)= 4.17*75000 + 3.85*1377550= 843,087.5

D) Allocated MOH (B2)= 4.17*54000 + 3.85*50895= 421,125.75

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Exercise 8-3
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

(a) Prepare the entries to record sales and collections during the period.

  • It had net credit sales of $800,000  

Dr Accounts receivable $ 800,000

Cr Sales $ 800,000

  • Collections of $763,000.

Dr CASH $ 763,000

Cr Accounts receivable $ 763,000

(b) Prepare the entry to record the write-off of uncollectible accounts during the period.

  • It wrote off as uncollectible accounts receivable of $7,300  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 7,300

Cr Accounts receivable $ 7,300

(c) Prepare the entries to record the recovery of the uncollectible account during the period.

  • However, a $3,100 account previously written off as uncollectible was recovered before the end of the current period.  

Dr Accounts receivable $ 3,100

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,100

(d) Prepare the entry to record bad debt expense for the period.

  • Uncollectible accounts are estimated to total $25,000 at the end of the period.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 20,200

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 20,200

Explanation:

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the estimated value of $25,000

Because the company already has a CREDIT balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts it's necessary to register an entry that complement the existing value and reflect the estimated value, $ 20,200  

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible.

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

7 0
2 years ago
During May, Joliet Fabrics Corporation manufactured 600 units of a special multilayer fabric with the trade name Stylex. The fol
Anika [276]

Direct labour rate variance = (3875) unfavourable, Direct labour efficiency rate = (800) unfavourable

<u>Explanation:</u>

<u>Computation of Direct Material Price & Quantity Variance </u>

Direct Material Purchase - Price variance  = (SP minus AP) multiply AQ Purchase  ($1.45 minus $1.48) multiply19000  = ($570) Unfavourable

Direc Material Quantity Variance =(SQ-AQ)SP  =

((20 multiply600)-10500) multiply$1.45 =  $2,175 Favourable

Direct Material Price variance - (SP minus AP)AQ Used  = ($1.45minus $1.48) multiply10500 = ($315) Unfavourable

<u>Computation of Direct Labour Rate & Efficiency Variance </u>

Direct Labour Rate variance  = (SR minus AR)multiply AH  

= ($8 minus $9.25) multiply3100  = -3875 Un Favourable

Direct Labour Efficiency Variance  (SH minus AH)multiply SR  

= ((5 multiply 600) minus 3100)multiply8)  = -800 Un Favourable

8 0
2 years ago
LKM, Inc. wants to issue new 20-year bonds for some much-needed expansion projects. The company currently has 6.5 percent coupon
pychu [463]

Answer:

6.75%

Explanation:

Price of bonds is equal to their par value when coupon rates match with yields to maturity. The 20-year bond with semiannual coupon payments is going to have 40 coupons payment plus 1 par value payment. Let formulate the price of this bond as below:

Bond price = [Par value x (Coupon rate/2)]/[1 + (YTM/2)] + [Par value x (Coupon rate/2)]/[1 + (YTM/2)]^2 + ...+ [Par value x (Coupon rate/2) + Par value]/[1 + (YTM/2)]^40, or:

972.78 = [1,000 x (6.5%/2)]/[1 + (YTM/2)] + [1,000 x (6.5%/2)]/[1 + (YTM/2)]^2 + ...+ [1,000 x (6.5%/2) + 1,000]/[1 + (YTM/2)]^40

Solve the equation we get YTM = 6.75%.

So, the company should set 6.75% coupon rate on its new bonds if it wants to sell them at par.

4 0
2 years ago
Harley signs a check payable to Pro Accountants, P.C., and gives it to Pro, leaving the amount blank but authorizing the firm to
Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is option C) $15,000 .

Explanation:

Harley signed and gave a blank check to the Pro accountants , and giving them them the authority to fill the amount by themselves but she had already came to an agreement with Pro accountant that the amount they would fill is $10,000 . But Pro accountants didn't do that, instead they filled the check for $15,000 , and gave the check to valley bank , now the valley bank has the full authority to enforce the full $15000 amount .

4 0
2 years ago
The director for S Corp. manufacturers of playground equipment, is considering a plan to expand production facilities in order t
Serggg [28]

Answer:

a. The company should not undertake the expansion because the WACC is lower than the desired rate of return of the company

b. Cost of Bonds

Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (804)           1              (804)           1                 (804)

1-25     55.3            9.0770    501.96    14.0939        779.39

25       1,000          0.0923      92.3      0.2953          295.3

                                  NPV      (209.74)              NPV    270.69                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 5       + 270.69/270.69 + 209.74   x (10 – 5)

Kd = 5       + 270.69/480.43 x 5

Kd = 7.82%    

c. Ke = D1/Po   + g

  Ke = $2 /$40 + 0.06

  Ke = 0.05 + 0.06

 Ke = 0.11 = 11%

d.   WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)

     WACC = 11(100/180) + 7.82(80/180)

     WACC = 6.11 + 3.48

     WACC = 9.59%

   

Explanation:

FIrst and foremost, we need to calculate cost of bond using internal rate of return formula. The current market price of the bond will be considered in year o. The cash inflows for year 1 to year 25 is the after tax coupon which is calculated using the formula R(1 -T). The coupon is 7% of N1,000 par value, which is $70. Then we will subject it to tax ie $70(1-0.21) = $55.3. The cashflow for year 25 is the par value. Then, we will discount the cashflows in order to obtain cost of bond.

Cost of equity is equal to dividend in year 1 divided by the current market price plus growth rate.

WACC is the proportion of each stock in the capital structure multiplied by cost of each stock.

Market value of the company = 80 + 100 = 180 since debt-equity ratio is 0.8 (80/100). Debt is 80 while equity is 100.

Since WACC is 9.59% and the desired return of the company is 11%. Thus, we will not undertake the expansion.

8 0
2 years ago
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