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noname [10]
2 years ago
7

When the Shaffers had a monthly income of $4,000, they usually ate out 8 times a month. Now that the couple makes $4,500 a month

, they eat out 10 times a month.
1. Compute the couple's income elasticity of demand using the midpoint method. Explain your answer.
2. Is a restaurant meal a normal or inferior good to the couple? Please show detailed calculations.
Business
2 answers:
Sever21 [200]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1) income elasticity of demand = 1.89

2) Restaurant meals are normal goods, since the income elasticity of demand is positive.

Explanation:

Before when the Shaffers earned $4,000 per month, they ate out 8 times per month. That means they ate out 1 time for every $500 made.

When there income increased to $4,500, they ate out 10 times per month. That means they ate out 1 time for every $450.

The income elasticity of demand using the midpoint method is calculated by using the following formula:

income elasticity = {change in quantity demanded / [(old quantity + new quantity) / 2]} /  {change in income / [(old income + new income) / 2]}  

= {2 / [(8 + 10) / 2]} /  {500 / [(4,000 + 4,500) / 2]} = (2 / 9) / (500 / 4,250) = 0.222 / 0.117 = 1.89

choli [55]2 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

Income Elasticity of Demand(IED)= Percentage change in quantity demanded/ Percentage change in income

-Percentage change in Q:

%Change in quantity demanded= (q2-q1/q1) = (10-8)/8= 0.25

-Percentage change in Income:

%Change in income= (i2-i1/i1) = (4,500-4,000)/4,000= 0.125

IED= 0.25/0.125= 2

This indicates that the Shaffers are very sensitive to changes in income when it comes to eating out. Which means that changes in income will change significantly the number of times they eat out.

2. Restaurant meals are normal goods, in this case, because when income rises, they ate more in restaurants, then the units consumed for this good increase too.

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Your client has been offered a 5-year, $1,000 par value bond with a 10 percent coupon. Interest on this bond is paid quarterly.
Serjik [45]

Answer:

$906.18

Explanation:

Step 1: Calculation of the present value of the coupon (PVC) cash flow

The formula for calculating the PV of an ordinary annuity is used as follows:

PVC = P × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1+r)]^n} ÷ r] …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PVC = Present value of the coupon (PVC) payment =?

P = Quarterly coupon amount = $1,000 × (10%/4) = $25

r = interest rate = 12% annual = 12% ÷ 4 quarterly = 3% or 0.03 quarterly

n = number of period = 5 years = 7 × 4 quarters = 28 quarters

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PVC = 25 × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1+0.03)]^28} ÷ 0.03] = $469.10

Step 2: Calculation of the present value of the face value (PVFAV) of the bond

The simple PV formula is used as follows:

PVFAV = FAV ÷ (1 + r)^n ……………………………………. (2)

Where;

PVFAC = Present value of the face value of the bond = ?

FAC = Face value of the bond = $1,000

r and n are as already given in step 1 above

Substituting these values into equation (2), we have:

PVFAV = FAV ÷ (1 + 0.03)^28 = $437.08

Step 3: Calculation of the market price of the bond

Market price of the bond = PVC + PVFAC …………………………… (3)

From step 1, PVC is $469.10, and PVFAC is $437.08 from Step 2. We can them substitute for them  in equation (3) and have:

Market price of the bond = $469.10 + $437.08 = $906.18

Conclusion

Therefore, she should pay $906.18 for the bond.

5 0
2 years ago
A firm is experiencing a loss of $5,000 per year. The firm has fixed costs of $8,000 per year.a. Should the firm operate in the
kramer

Answer:

(a) Continue to operate.

(b) Shut down

(c) Continue to operate.

Explanation:

(a) It is given that the firm will experiencing a loss of $5000. Therefore, it means that a loss of $5,000 is borne by the producer of the fixed cost. It is a portion of fixed cost but the firm will continue to operate in the short run if it covers all of the variable cost in the short run.

(b) The firms in the long run try to cover all of its variable and fixed cost. If this situation persists then this firm unable to cover its all costs. Therefore, the firm will shut down its operation and go out of the business.

(c) Now, if the firm’s fixed costs are $2,000.

There is a reduction in the fixed cost by $6,000

Previously firm able to cover = $8,000 - $5,000

                                                = $3,000

It means that it cover its fixed cost and hence, the firm will operate in both short run and long run.

4 0
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ehidna [41]

Answer:

a) $1080

b)$19080

c) Loan given | -$18000

d)$540

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b) The total receivable at december 31,Year = 18000+1080 = $19080

c)  Year 1  :Statement of cash flow

Loan given | -$18000

d) Interest income Year 2 = $18000*9%*4/12 = $540

e) Total cash collect in 2017 = $18000+$1080 + $540 = $19620

f) Cash flow from investing activities :

           loan | 18000

           Interest received | $1620

g)Total interest earned = 18000*9% = $1620

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