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Sonbull [250]
2 years ago
10

Victryl Company applies overhead based on direct labor hours. At the beginning of the year, Victryl estimates overhead to be $70

0,000, machine hours to be 200,000, and direct labor hours to be 35,000. During February, Victryl has 5,000 direct labor hours and 10,000 machine hours.If the actual overhead for February is $98,300, what is the overhead variance, and is it overapplied or underapplied?a.$1,700 overappliedb.$600 overappliedc.$1,000 underappliedd.$1200 underappliede.$800 overapplied
Business
1 answer:
yan [13]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

correct option is a. $1,700 over head applied

Explanation:

given data

overhead = $700,000

machine hours = 200,000

direct labor hours = 35,000

Feb, direct labor hours = 5,000

Feb, machine hours = 10,000

Feb, actual overhead = $98,300

solution

we know overhead rate that is

overhead rate = \frac{Budget overhead}{allocation base}

overhead rate = \frac{700000}{35000}

overhead rate = $20 per hours

and in Feb for 5000 direct labor hour

overhead =  5000 × $20  = $100,000

so

over head applied = $100,000 - $98300

over head applied = $1700

so correct option is a. $1,700 over head applied

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Margaret [11]

Answer: $58,000

Explanation:

If Zhou is allowed to treat the departments as components of a single activity then ALL the losses suffered by Department B can be offset against the Income of Department A because they will be treated as a singular business.

Seeing as Department A has a higher income of $70,000 than the loss of Department B of $58,000, all of Department B's loss can therefore be offset by Department A.

8 0
2 years ago
Trapper Corporation is comparing two different capital structures, an all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Und
mariarad [96]

Answer:

EPS

Plan I     $2.03 per share

Plan II    $1.78 per share

Explanation:

Plan I

As this plan is all equity plan, so there is no debt and no interest expense as well.

In the absence of taxes, We will use the EBIT  in the calculation of EPS

EPS  = Net Earning / Outstanding numbers of shares = $375,000 / 185,000 = $2.03 per share

Plan II

In this levered plan we have debt and equity combination. We also have to deduct the interest expense from EBIT to calculate the net income.

Interest Expense = $2,700,000 x 5% = $135,000

Net Income  = EBIT - Interest Expense = $375,000 - $135,000 = $240,000

EPS = Net Income / Outstanding numbers of shares = $240,000 / 135,000 = $1.8 per share

3 0
2 years ago
Each service starts on a different date because the services depend on each other. Enter the starting dates for the remaining se
gladu [14]

Answer:

a. Copy the range of cell D7:D9 then select cell D6 and paste the selection with date format selected. The function will be represented in formula bar with adding +4;365 days.

b. Copy the range of cell D7:D9 then select cell D6 and paste the selection with date format selected. The function will be represented in formula bar with adding -3;365 days.

c. In the formula bar type =365 days; +2 : E6

d. In the formula bar type =365 days ; +2 : C6

Explanation:

Excel is a software which helps the users to easily calculate complex calculation with just one function input. The users can create worksheets using the excel and then link those worksheets with each other. The data can be displayed in the form of table or simple text. It has multiple options to create annual day wise filtered worksheets.

7 0
1 year ago
All of the following represent cash outflows to the firm excepta. Taxes.b. Interest payments.c. Dividends.d. Purchase of plant a
Sergio039 [100]

All of the following represent cash outflows except E; Depreciation.

Further Explanation:

Cash outflows to a firm/business is how much cash for the business is available after taxes and capital are paid for. Interest payments, dividends and the purchase of equipment for the plant is considered into the cash flows.

Depreciation will not be part of the cash flow. This is considered to be a non-cash expense to the business/firm. This is an ongoing charge to the fixed assets of the business. This actually reduces the cash flow by reducing the monies paid for income taxes.

Learn more about depreciation at  brainly.com/question/9862781

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7 0
2 years ago
In the Vasquez Corporation, any overapplied or underapplied manufacturing overhead is closed out to Cost of Goods Sold. Last yea
wolverine [178]

Answer:

Cost of Goods Sold, after adjustment for overapplied manufacturing overhead, for the year must have been $69,000.

Explanation:

From the question, we have:

Applied manufacturing overhead cost = $29,000

Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $27,000

Cost of Goods Manufactured for the year = $71,000

Overapplied manufacturing overhead = Applied manufacturing overhead cost - Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $29,000 - $27,000 = $2,000

Therefore, we have:

Cost of Goods Sold = Cost of Goods Manufactured for the year - Overapplied manufacturing overhead = $71,000 - $2,000 = $69,000

Therefore, Cost of Goods Sold, after adjustment for overapplied manufacturing overhead, for the year must have been $69,000.

8 0
1 year ago
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