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belka [17]
2 years ago
15

John runs 500 feet in 1 minute. Identify the correct conversion factor setup required to compute John's speed in inches per seco

nd.
Mathematics
2 answers:
slavikrds [6]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

see the procedure

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that

1\ ft=12\ in

To convert feet to inches multiply by 12

1\ min=60\ sec

To convert minutes to seconds multiply by 60

we have

500\frac{ft}{min}=500(\frac{12}{60})=500(\frac{1}{5})=100\frac{in}{sec}

Ivanshal [37]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

\frac{500\text{ ft}}{\text{ 1 min}}\times \frac{1 \text{ min}}{\text{ 60 sec}}\times \frac{12\text{ inches}}{\text{1 ft}}

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that John runs 500 feet in 1 minute. We are asked to identify the correct conversion factor setup required to compute John's speed in inches per second.              

We know that 1 minute equals 60 seconds and 1 feet equals 12 inches .

\frac{500\text{ ft}}{\text{ 1 min}}\times \frac{1 \text{ min}}{\text{ 60 sec}}\times \frac{12\text{ inches}}{\text{1 ft}}

Therefore, our required conversion factor would be \frac{500\text{ ft}}{\text{ 1 min}}\times \frac{1 \text{ min}}{\text{ 60 sec}}\times \frac{12\text{ inches}}{\text{1 ft}}.  

Let us covert 500 feet in 1 minute to inches per second as:

\frac{500}{1}\times \frac{1}{\text{ 60 sec}}\times \frac{12\text{ inches}}{1}

\frac{500}{1}\times \frac{1}{\text{ 5 sec}}\times \frac{1\text{ inches}}{1}

\frac{500\text{ inches}}{\text{ 5 sec}}

\frac{100\text{ inches}}{\text{ sec}}

Therefore, John runs at a rate of 100 inches per second.

   

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Answer:

The claim is not fair because:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The <em>probaility</em> of an event is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the number of total possible events.

P (event E) = number of outcomes for event E / number of possible events

1. <u>As </u><u>first step</u><u>, you may draw a table to find the </u><u>sample space</u><u> (set of all possible outcomes)</u>.

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The results of the rolling two dice are summarized in this table:

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First roll

  1                                       (1,1)  (1,2)    (1,3)   (1,4)   (1,5)  (1,6)

  2                                     (2,1)  (2,2)  (2,3)  (2,4)  (2,5)  (2,6)

  3                                     (3,1)  (3,2)  <u>(3,3)</u>   (3,4)  (3,5)  (3,6)

  4                                     (4,1)   (4,2)  (4,3)  (4,4)  (4,5)  (4,6)

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  6                                     (6,1)  (6,2)  (6,3)  (6,4)  (6,5)  <u>(6,6)</u>

<u></u>

2.<u>Now, in that table, you can observe</u>:

The results (3,3) and (6,6) are highlited.

a) Total number of events: 6 × 6 = 36

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c) Number of outcomes for the event rolling two 3s (3,3): 1

3) <u>Next, you can calculate the probabilities:</u>

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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Hence, Profit is:

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3 0
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Read 2 more answers
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Ray Of Light [21]

Answer: 4

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now we have each run to cost 2500, therefore:

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now derivate the function with respect to N and equal to 0:

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this gives you two solutions, N = -4 which is not eligible (you cant make negative microscopes lol) and N = 4 which is the answer

have a nice day

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2 years ago
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alexdok [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Let

x ----> number of hours worked as a babysitter  last week

y ----> number of hours worked as a lifeguard last week

we know that

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y=2

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x=4(2)=8

therefore

Justin worked as a babysitter  8 hours and worked as a lifeguard 2 hours last week

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