Answer:
Option A net worth -215,906.03
Option B net worth -210, 159.75
It is a better deal to use the machine through lease than purchase it as the net worth is lower.
Explanation:
Purchase the machine:
-164,000 purchase cost
PV of the maintenance cost
C -9,000.00
time 10
rate 0.08
PV -$60,390.7326
PV of the salvage value
Maturity 14,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.08000
PV 6,484.7088
<em>net worth: </em>
-162,000 - 60,390.73 + 6,484.70 = -215,906.03
PV of the lease: (annuity-due)
C 29,000.00
time 10
rate 0.08
PV $210,159.7494
Answer: A. Raul could gain access to cheaper raw materials in a foreign country, thus lowering the cost of his input factors.
Explanation:
Being able to produce goods at a lower cost is a good thing for a business because it means that the business can be able to sell at a lower price and therefore get more customers and increase overall profitability.
If Raul could access materials from a foreign company at a cheaper rate, this would be advantageous because his company can produce at a lower price and increase profitability.
Answer: 16.33%
Explanation:
With the details given, the best method of Calculating the expected rate of return is the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
The formula is,
Er = Rf + b(Rm - Rf)
Where,
Er is expected return
Rf is the risk free rate
b is beta
Rm - Rf is the Market Premium
Er = 3.87% + 1.38(9.03)
= 3.87% + 12.4614%
= 16.33%
The model accounts for inflation by including the risk free rate which is already adjusted for inflation.
Answer:
Cash Flows from Operating Activities is 555.050
Explanation:
The indirect method involves the adjustment of net income with changes in balance sheet accounts to arrive at the amount of cash generated by operating activities.
It depends on the account if it is added or subtracted to net income. Below you will find the added account with a plus (+) and the subtracted ones with a minus (-)
Notice the amounts of any decreases are in parentheses.
Net income 490.000
Adjustment to reconcile the net income to cash
+ Depreciation expense 52.000
- Gain on disposal of equipment (7.000)
+ Decrease in accounts receivable 32.400
- Decrease in accounts payable (12.350)
Net cash 555.050
Answer:
B. $132,000.
Solution : Segment margin is calculated by deducting all expenses that are directly traceable to the segment. it doesn't include corporate common expenses.
So, Contribution = 50000 x(10-6) = $ 200000
Less : Direct fixed cost ($ 68000)
Segment Margin $ 132000
