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yan [13]
2 years ago
4

To copy an angle using only a compass and a straightedge, begin by marking the vertex of the new angle. Then draw a ray from the

vertex, which will be one of the legs of the new angle. What is the next step in the construction?
A) Set the compass width to the vertex of the angle, place the compass needle at any point on the leg of the new angle, and make an arc in the angle's interior.



B) Set the compass to a sufficient width, place the compass needle on one leg of the original angle, and draw an arc on the other leg of the angle.



C) Set the compass to a convenient width, place the compass needle on one of the legs of the original angle, and draw an arc on the leg of the new angle.



D) Set the compass to a convenient width, and draw an arc that is centered at the vertex of the original angle and intersects both legs of the original angle.
Mathematics
2 answers:
xxTIMURxx [149]2 years ago
4 0
D because the next step after that needs an arc that intersects. it's a little complicated to explain but I hope that helps
saw5 [17]2 years ago
3 0
<span>Set the compass to a convenient width, and draw an arc that is centered at the vertex of the original angle and intersects both legs of the original angle.</span>
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The figure below shows the ideal pattern of movement of a herd of cattle, with the arrows showing the movement of the handler as
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Answer:

  109.9 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of an arc that is 1/4 of a circle of radius 70 ft is ...

  s = rθ

  s = (70 ft)(π/2) = 35π ft ≈ 109.9557 ft

The best answer choice appears to be 109.9 feet.

4 0
2 years ago
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A hot tub pump circulates 4 cubic feet of water per minute. How many cubic inches of water does it circulate each minute?
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

48 Cubic Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

One foot, whether it be squared, cubed, or otherwise changed, will always equal twelve inches to the same power. So, 4 cubic feet is 48 cubic inches because 4*12=48

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2 years ago
Problem 2.2.4 Your Starburst candy has 12 pieces, three pieces of each of four flavors: berry, lemon, orange, and cherry, arrang
kkurt [141]

Answer:

a) P=0

b) P=0.164

c) P=0.145

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 12 pieces, with 3 of each of the 4 flavors.

You draw the first 4 pieces.

a) The probability of getting all of the same flavor is 0, because there are only 3 pieces of each flavor. Once you get the 3 of the same flavor, there are only the other flavors remaining.

b) The probability of all 4 being from different flavor can be calculated as the multiplication of 4 probabilities.

The first probability is for the first draw, and has a value of 1, as any flavor will be ok.

The second probability corresponds to drawing the second candy and getting a different flavor. There are 2 pieces of the flavor from draw 1, and 9 from the other flavors, so this probability is 9/(9+2)=9/11≈0.82.

The third probability is getting in the third draw a different flavor from the previos two draws. We have left 10 candys and 4 are from the flavor we already picked. Then the third probabilty is 6/10=0.6.

The fourth probability is getting the last flavor. There are 9 candies left and only 3 are of the flavor that hasn't been picked yet. Then, the probability is 3/9=0.33.

Then, the probabilty of picking the 4 from different flavors is:

P=1\cdot\dfrac{9}{11}\cdot\dfrac{6}{10}\cdot\dfrac{3}{9}=\dfrac{162}{990}\approx0.164

c) We can repeat the method for the previous probabilty.

The first draw has a probability of 1 because any flavor is ok.

In the second draw, we may get the same flavor, with probability 2/11, or we can get a second flavor with probability 9/11. These two branches are ok.

For the third draw, if we have gotten 2 of the same flavor (P=2/11), we have to get a different flavor (we can not have 3 of the same flavor). This happen with probability 9/10.

If we have gotten two diffente flavors, there are left 4 candies of the picked flavors in the remaining 10 candies, so we have a probabilty of 4/10.

For the fourth draw, independently of the three draws, there are only 2 candies left that satisfy the condition, so we have a probability of 2/9.

For the first path, where we pick 2 candies of the same flavor first and 2 candies of the same flavor last, we have two versions, one for each flavor, so we multiply this probability by a factor of 2.

We have then the probabilty as:

P=2\cdot\left(1\cdot\dfrac{2}{11}\right)\cdot\left(\dfrac{9}{10}\cdot\dfrac{2}{9}\right)+\left(1\cdot\dfrac{9}{11}\cdot\dfrac{4}{10}\cdot\dfrac{2}{9}\right)\\\\\\P=2\cdot\dfrac{36}{990}+\dfrac{72}{990}=\dfrac{144}{990}\approx0.145

5 0
2 years ago
Refer to the data in the table below to answer the question. (Express percents to the nearest tenth.) Date Description Amount Ba
MariettaO [177]
Issa whole test my guy
4 0
2 years ago
13 If B is the midpoint of AC, and AC = 8x – 20,<br><br> find BC.<br><br> 3x-1<br><br> А в
Papessa [141]

Answer:

BC = 26

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

B is the midpoint of AC

Then AC = AB + BC

AC = 8x - 20 and AB = 3x - 1

Then,

8x - 20 = (3x - 1) + BC

8x - 20 - (3x - 1) = BC

8x - 20 - 3x + 1 = BC

5x - 19 = BC

But AB = BC

5x - 19 = 3x - 1

5x - 3x = - 1 + 19

2x = 18

x = 9

Hence,

Since BC = AB = 3x - 1

3(9) - 1

27 - 1

= 26

7 0
2 years ago
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