Answer:
C. $250000
Explanation:
Given:
Total assets = $600,000
Liabilities = $160,000
Stockholders’ equity = $540,000.
Fair value of the restaurant assets = $680,000
Alice Company pays = $770,000
Goodwill is when a company looking to acquire another company is willing to pay a price significantly higher than the fair market value of the company’s net assets.
Net Assets = Fair value of assets - Total Liabilities
= $680000 - $160,000
= $520,000
Amount of Goodwill = cash paid - net assets
= $770,000 - $520,000
= $250000
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is option D) Eliminate risk through application of ORM( which stands for operational risk management ).
Explanation:
Operational risk management can be defined as the continuous cyclical process which consists of risk decision, implementation of risk controls, risk assessment and risk decision making, which would help in mitigation, avoidance and acceptance of risk.
The four principle included in this are -
1) Accepting risk only when the benefits out weights the cost.
2) Anticipating and managing risk by proper planning.
3) Making right decisions at right time and at right level.
4) Anticipate no unnecessary risk.
Answer:
A. A only
Explanation:
U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) does not allow property, plant, and equipment to be written up or revalued. If the fair value of PP&E falls below the book value and the amount is material then a company must write down the asset to fair value.
Since under US GAAP, once PPE is written, it can not be reversed. as Company B is indicated to have reversed the write down while company A did not. It therefore means that Company A only is reporting under US GAAP.
Answer:
We have to assume specific tax rate to come up with the income tax expenses. Let assume the tax rate is 30%.
The income tax expense in year 2: $53,400.
Explanation:
We have:
Depreciation expenses of the equipment in the second year = (Initial cost - salvage value) / Useful life = (168,000 - 0)/4 = $42,000.
Profit before tax in year 2 = Sales in year 2 - operating expenses in year 2 - Depreciation expenses in year 2 = 520,000 - 300,000 - 42,000 = $178,000.
Income tax expense in year 2 = Profit before tax in year 2 x tax rate = 178,000 x 30% = $53,400.
So, the answer is $53,400.
Answer:
d- EVP has a short-term swing profit is $3000
Explanation:
Lets first understand what short-term swing profit is. Short-term swing profit is profit dependent upon a rule normally set by the securities & exchange commission which states that any profits made by company insiders through the purchase and sale of share/stocks within six months must be returned to the company. Company insiders are people/employees working within the entity mostly having more than 10% of company's shares or employees such as executives, directors and managers.
Now It's not clear from the question what the purchase price of the shares was when EVP sold them on January 12 2016, assuming these shares were purchased at $20, then the short-term swing profit would be $2000 as at January. Then EVP purchases 100 shares at $20 and sells them at $30 per share as at june. The additional short-term swing profit would be $1000 (i.e $30-$20=$10 per share).
Therefore the total short-term swing profit is $3000
