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Eduardwww [97]
2 years ago
8

Fincorp’s free cash flow to the firm is reported as $205 million. The firm’s interest expense is $22 million. Assume the tax rat

e is 35% and the net debt of the firm increases by $3 million. What is the market value of equity if the fcfe is projected to grow at 3% indefinitely and the cost of equity is 12%?
Business
2 answers:
Brut [27]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The market value of equity is $2,152.22

Explanation:

FCFE = 205 - 22*(1 - 35) + 3

         = 193.70

market value = 193.70/(0.12 - 0.03)

                      = $2,152.22

Therefore, The market value of equity is $2,152.22

xxMikexx [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

2152.22 million

Explanation:

The computation of market value equity is given below :-

Free cash flow = $205 million

So,The interest expenses will be calculated

= 22 × (1-35%)

=  22 × 0.65

= -14.3

Net Debt = $3 million

Free cash flow to equity = free cash flow + interest expenses + net debt

= $205 million - 14.3 + $3 million

= $193.7 million

Cost of equity = 12%

Growth = 3%

So the value is (Net Debt) ÷ (cost of equity - growth)

= 2152.22 million

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Burberry's global marketing strategy of offering "affordable luxury" to customers in the United States, with a value proposition
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

B) price.

Explanation:

Burberry's strategy in this case is based on price reduction. They aim to provide cheaper luxury goods to customers in the United States.

Their value proposition is that their luxury products are more expensive the Coach but cheaper than Prada (not too cheap and not too expensive).

This strategy is aimed both at gaining luxury customers that want a cheaper alternative, and get new customers that want to enter the luxury goods market but don't have enough money to buy the expensive ones.

8 0
2 years ago
Your investment has a 40% chance of earning a 15% rate of return, a 50% chance of earning a 10% rate of return, and a 10% chance
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

5.139%

Explanation:

P(Xi) = Probability of event Xi

E(X) = Expected value of X

The expected value of this investment is the weighted average of the possible returns:

E(X) = 0.40*0.15+0.50*0.10+0.10*(-0.03)\\E(X) = 0.107

The standard deviation of this investment is:

S=\sqrt{\sum P(X_i)(X_i-E(X))^2}\\S=\sqrt{0.40*(0.15-0.107)^2+0.50*(0.10-0.107)^2+0.10*(-0.03-0.107)^2} \\S=0.05139=5.139\%

This investment has a standard deviation of 5.139%.

6 0
2 years ago
KaiLynn has total job benefits of $41,000 per year in her sales job. She pays $63 each month for a cell phone for work. She is a
alukav5142 [94]

Answer: a. $39,304

Explanation:

Let us begin by calculating the yearly phone bill.

$63 per month so that is

= 63*12

= $756

A total of $756 per year is spent on the company phone.

Kailynn buys 4 sample kits at $235 per kit.

= 235*4

= $940 in total for the kits last year.

Add the two figures to get her total expenditure from the company.

=940+756

= $1696

Subtract this from her total job benefits,

=$41,000 - $1696

= $39,304

$39,304 was her total employment compensation.

7 0
2 years ago
TEW COMPANY Balance Sheet As of December 31 ASSETS Cash $ 20,000 Accounts receivable 80,000 Inventory 50,000 Net plant and equip
Mariana [72]

ANSWER: 57.5%

Debt to assets ratio:

= Total Liabilities / Total Assets

Given:

Cash $20,000

Accounts Receivable $80,000

Inventory $50,000

Net Plant and Equipment $250,000

Total Assets: $400,000

Accounts Payable $40,000

Accrued Expenses $60,000

Long Term Debt $130,000

Total Liabilities: $230,000

Computation:

= $230,000 / $400,000

= 57.5%

The interpretation of the figures shown is that 57.5% of the total assets are financed by the creditors of company instead of investors being funded by borrowing compared as how much was funded by the investors.

Generally, 40℅ ratio or lower is considered as a good debt ratio. Above than 60℅ ratio is said as poor ratio, because of the risk that the company will not be able to generate cash flows to finance and pay its debts.

Therefore, TEW Company has a normal and efficient ratio of 57.5% and is able to pay its debts.

3 0
2 years ago
Employees earn vacation pay at the rate of one day per month. During the month of June, 10 employees qualify for one vacation da
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

B. Debit Vacation Benefits Expense $1,500; credit Vacation Benefits Payable $1,500

Explanation:

Lets consider all the other options to eliminate them from our choice

Option A: The entry provided debits the vacation benefits expenses and credits the prepaid vacation benefits. The liability for the vacation credit earned by the employees during the month needs to be recorded so this is not an adjustment of an advance vacation benefit.

Option C: The required entry has nothing to do with taxes so not relevant.

Option D: The entry is to record the liability for vacations earned by the employees so an expenses has to be recorded.

Option E: The option reduces the liability and reduces the expenses which is against the requirement of  the question

5 0
2 years ago
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