7.5x18.74= 140.55 is the correct answer
Answer:
Expected value = 190
Variance = 4000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let X be the number of the trials until the third success of the bad pump.
This implies that X is a negative binomial distribution
having θ = 20% = 0.2.
Now, if for example it will take X trials to use up the three pumps, then the total time is 10 min/trials + extra 10 minutes for the 3 bad pumps
This means the total time is written as;
T = 10X + (10 + 10 + 20)
T = 10X + 40
Mean which is also expected value of X is;
μ_x = 3/0.2 = 15
Variance of X is; σ²_x = 40
Thus;
Mean of T will be;
μ_T = 10μ_x + 40
μ_T = 10(15) + 40
μ_T = 190
Also, variance of T will be;
σ²_T = 10²•σ²_x
σ²_T = 100 × 40
σ²_T = 4000
<span>Given:
Matrix = 60 elements</span>
<span>To solve this, we need to
take into account that each row must contain the same number of elements. So, we
need to find which of the options do not divide evenly into 60 (the options are
30, 60, 10, and 18).
So we check each of the choices to see if 1 of them divides evenly with 60.
60 / 60 = 1 (divides evenly)</span>
60 / 30 = 2 (divides
evenly)
<span>60 / 10 = 6 (divides
evenly)
</span>60 / 18 = 3.3.3333333333333333333333333333333 (does not divide evenly)
Therefore, 18 cannot equal the number of rows of the matrix.
First piece of pie = 15/18
Second piece of pie = 13/6.
We need to find the total value.
In order to find the total value, we need to add both fractions.
Total value = First piece of pie + Second piece of pie.
=15/18 + 13/6.
In order to add those fractions, we need to find the common denominators.
We have denominators 18 and 6.
Common denominator of 18 and 6 is 18.
So, we need to multiply second fraction 13/6 by 3 in top and bottom to make the denominator of second fraction equals 18.
Therefore, 15/18 + 13/6 = 15/18 + 13*3/6*3
=15/18 +39/18.
=(15+39)/18.
=54/18.
Therefore, Fiona had 54/18 in total.
Answer:
Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that Hiro has a stack of cards with one number from the set 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 written on each card.
We calculate the probability that he pulls out a 3 first and then pulls out a 2 without replacing them.
The probability that he pulls out a 3 first is 3/8.
The probability of a second card being 2 is 2/8.
We get:
Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.
