I think the answer is 4 all of the above.
This is known as in-sample forecast. It estimated the model using all available data and then comparing it to the model's fixed values to the actual realizations. But, this method is known to attract an overly positive picture of the model's forecasting ability since common fitting algorithms tend to take pains to avoid big prediction errors and are also inclined to overfitting (mistaking noise for signal in the data).
Haylie should reinvest her money elsewhere. Due to having her money locked up for 5 years and at an all time low with her current investments, it would not be beneficial to renew with them. Haylie’s best bet is to explore other options before her renewal rate starts so that she has a plan in place on where to reinvest her money. Haylie should focus on finding a bank that will provide better term agreements at a higher interest rate.
A) Accounting profits dont take implicit costs into account, only "real" or quantifiable costs.
Thus the present value of a 120,000 lease at 5% for three years with explicit costs of $40,000 maintenance is:
PV = [ FV/(1+r)^n ] - (Explicit Cost)
PV = 120000/(1.05^3) - (40000*3)
B) same thing but add implicit costs ...
PV = 120000/(1.05^3) - (40000*3) - (55000*3)
Answer: The adjusting entries for the uncollectible accounts would be as follows: Debit Bad debt expense $277,500; Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts $277,500
Explanation: As provided in the question, bad debt expense is determined by the percentage of sales method. In this instance, it is estimated at 1/4 of 1% of sales. 1% of $102,480,000 = $1,024,800; 1/4 of $1,024,800 = $256,200. Please note that there was an existing debit balance of $21,300 in allowance for doubtful accounts (usually, it should have a credit balance), in order to reinstate the allowance for doubtful account to $256,200, we have to credit it with $277,500 ($256,200 + $21,300), by way of the journals above.
