Answer:
Explanation:
Goodwill is defined as the excess in amount of the purchase price of a company over the fair value at acquisition.It is intangible in nature , meaning it can not be physically separated from the other assets. Example are patent , brand name , good employee relation.
1.
Goodwill calculation
Purchase price - $2,500,000
Fair value - $1,800,000
Goodwill - $700,000
2.
No
Under the IAS 36, impairment of assets , goodwill is not amortized but annually tested for impairment as amortization is applicable to intangible assets with a definite useful life while intangible assets with indefinite useful life are annually tested for impairment to evaluate a loss in value experienced.
3
No
Under IAS 38 , Internally generated goodwill are not recognized as no related cost is incurred towards achieving a future benefit
Answer:
Explanation:
A)
The regression equation is,
ln(Cell Phone Subscribers) = -820.894 + 0.411704 Year
or,
Percent of Cell Phone Subscribers = exp(--820.894 + 0.411704 Year)
For the year 2005,
Percent of Cell Phone Subscribers = exp(--820.894 + 0.411704 * 2005)
= 96.79%
B)
P-value for the significance of the slope is very low (0.000). Thus, the model is statistically significant and the prediction of the model is highly reliable.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
An organization that makes use of multisegment marketing approach is undoubtedly a big company that have established name for itself. This means that, the organization or company is well known and that it is an household name in the industry. Therefore, such company has the capacity of using multisegment marketing approach.
But a small company will only make use of one pricing method, this is to attract people to its products. And avoid competing with the established organizations. So, in the process, creating name for itself.
Answer:
unstructured problem
Explanation:
According to my research on different types of business problems, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of an unstructured problem. These are defined as problems that do not have an identified cause and can be difficult to identify or solve. Which is what seems to be the case in this scenario since nobody knows why sales have decline.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.
Explanation:
optimal hedge ratio
= coefficient of correlation*(standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity/standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity)
= 0..8*(0.65/0.81)
= 0.642
Therefore, The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.
