
notice the picture of the graph added here
low and behold, x = -17, y is 0, and x= 15, y is 0
the graph is touching the x-axis, an x-intercept
or so-called, a "solution"
P-.15p this is the expression for cost after discount
and its just .15p for just the discount
Correction:
Because F is not present in the statement, instead of working onP(E)P(F) = P(E∩F), I worked on
P(E∩E') = P(E)P(E').
Answer:
The case is not always true.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the odds for E equals the odds against E', then it is correct to say that the E and E' do not intersect.
And for any two mutually exclusive events, E and E',
P(E∩E') = 0
Suppose P(E) is not equal to zero, and P(E') is not equal to zero, then
P(E)P(E') cannot be equal to zero.
So
P(E)P(E') ≠ 0
This makes P(E∩E') different from P(E)P(E')
Therefore,
P(E∩E') ≠ P(E)P(E') in this case.
Answer:
7890
Step-by-step explanation:
(5000*4%)+(x*5%)=594.50
200+(x*5%)=594.50
x*5%=394.50
x=7890
Carla is correct because they will not all be exactly the same unless they choose to make them all be the same. Hope I could help! :D