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blsea [12.9K]
2 years ago
3

The Endeavor, a space shuttle, has speeds of about 27,404 feet per second. Convert the speed into kilometers per hour and miles

per hour.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Speed of shuttle in km per hr =        30069.86 km per hr

Speed of shuttle in miles per hr       =    18643.31  miles per hr

Step-by-step explanation:

Speed of space shuttle in feet per second= 27,404 feet per second

As

One foot per second = 1.09728 kilometers per hour,

The speed in kilometers per hour is equal to the feet per second multiplied by 1.09728

So

To find  out speed of shuttle in km per hour we will mutilpy our speed with 1.09728

              27404 ft per sec         =         27404x 1.09728 km per hr

    speed of shuttle in km per hr =        30069.86 km per hr

Now

As we know 1km = 0.621371 miles

To convert this speed into miles per hr we will multiply our speed with 0.621371

        30069.86 km per hr   =    30069.86x0.621371 miles per hr

     speed of shuttle in miles per hr       =    18643.31  miles per hr

Keywords: conversion of measurements

Learn more about  conversion of measurements at:

  • brainly.com/question/4837736
  • brainly.com/question/1548911

#learnwithBrainly

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Carolyn is using the table to find 360% of 15. What values do X and Y represent in her table? Percent Total 100% 100% 100% 20% 2
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Answer:   c

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the percent breakdown of 360%.

100% 100% 100% 20%20%20%

15.       15.      15.    3.     3.     3.

100% is all of it, so 15. This is x.

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2 years ago
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For the inverse variation equation p = StartFraction 8 Over V EndFraction, what is the value of V when p = 4?
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Answer:

V=2

Step-by-step explanation:

For the inverse variation equation p = StartFraction 8 Over V EndFraction, what is the value of V when p = 4?

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y=k/x

Where,

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From the question,

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What is the value of V when p=4

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Make V the subject of the formula

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Problem 2.2.4 Your Starburst candy has 12 pieces, three pieces of each of four flavors: berry, lemon, orange, and cherry, arrang
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Answer:

a) P=0

b) P=0.164

c) P=0.145

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 12 pieces, with 3 of each of the 4 flavors.

You draw the first 4 pieces.

a) The probability of getting all of the same flavor is 0, because there are only 3 pieces of each flavor. Once you get the 3 of the same flavor, there are only the other flavors remaining.

b) The probability of all 4 being from different flavor can be calculated as the multiplication of 4 probabilities.

The first probability is for the first draw, and has a value of 1, as any flavor will be ok.

The second probability corresponds to drawing the second candy and getting a different flavor. There are 2 pieces of the flavor from draw 1, and 9 from the other flavors, so this probability is 9/(9+2)=9/11≈0.82.

The third probability is getting in the third draw a different flavor from the previos two draws. We have left 10 candys and 4 are from the flavor we already picked. Then the third probabilty is 6/10=0.6.

The fourth probability is getting the last flavor. There are 9 candies left and only 3 are of the flavor that hasn't been picked yet. Then, the probability is 3/9=0.33.

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c) We can repeat the method for the previous probabilty.

The first draw has a probability of 1 because any flavor is ok.

In the second draw, we may get the same flavor, with probability 2/11, or we can get a second flavor with probability 9/11. These two branches are ok.

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For the first path, where we pick 2 candies of the same flavor first and 2 candies of the same flavor last, we have two versions, one for each flavor, so we multiply this probability by a factor of 2.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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