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barxatty [35]
2 years ago
5

Someone has stolen an ATM card and knows that the first and last digits of the PIN are 8 and 1, respectively. He has three tries

before the card is retained by the ATM (but does not realize that). So he randomly selects the 2nd and 3rd digits for the first try, then randomly selects a different pair of digits for the second try, and yet another randomly selected pair of digits for the third try (the individual knows about the restrictions described in (b) so selects only from the legitimate possibilities). What is the probability that the individual gains access to the account
Mathematics
1 answer:
emmasim [6.3K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer: The probability of the individual to gain access into the account is 0.038

Step-by-step explanation:

The security code of every ATM card is four digits,

So let's assume the code is

8xy1

Let x and y represent the second and third digit

STEP 1 : THE PROBABILITY OF GETTING ACCESS IN THE FIRST TRIAL

to select a number from 0 to 9 is ten chances

Therefore the probability to select the right number will be;

1/10

The probability of the right value of x and y to occur the same time will be

1/10 × 1/10 = 1/100

STEP 2: THE PROBABILITY OF GETTING ACCESS IN THE SECOND TRAIL;

Since a number has been selected in the first trail, the probability of selecting the right number will be; 1/9

The probability of getting the right value of x and y to occur the same time will be

1/9 × 1/9 = 1/81

STEP 3: THE PROBABILITY OF GETTING ACCESS IN THE THIRD TRIAL;

Since a number has been selected in the first and second trail, the probability of selecting the right number will be;

1/8

The probability of getting the right value of x and y to occur the same time will be;

1/8 × 1/8 = 1/64

STEP 4: THE PROBABILITY OF GETTING ACCESS TO THE ACOUNT;

For the person to gain access to the account that means the first, second, and their probability is applied.

1/100 + 1/81 + 1/64 = 19684/518400 = 0.038

Therefore the probability of getting access into the account is 0.038

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Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

a. 28˚

b. 76˚

c. 104˚

d. 56˚

Step-by-step explanation

a. because angle between tangent and chord is equal to the angle(s) in alternate segment.

b. because angles in triangles add up to 180˚, 180-28=152 and because isosceles triangle, 152/2=76˚

c. because angles in triangles add up to 180˚ and opposite angles in a cyclic quadrilateral add up to 180˚, 31+76=107, 180-107=73, 73-28=45, angles in triangle so 180-(31+45)=104˚

d. 28*2=56˚ because angles at circumference are half angles at centre

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2 years ago
Complete the following two-column proof that proves the Congruent Supplements Theorem. HELP ME ASAPPPP BRO PLEASE DUED BY TONIGH
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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
An urn contains two blue balls (denoted B1 and B2) and three white balls (denoted W1, W2, and W3). One ball is drawn, its color
alekssr [168]

Answer:

(a) Shown below.

(b) The probability that the first ball drawn is blue is 0.40.

(c) The probability that only white balls are drawn is 0.36.

Step-by-step explanation:

The balls in the urn are as follows:

Blue balls: B₁ and B₂

White balls: W₁, W₂ and W₃

It is provided that two balls are drawn from the urn, with replacement, and their color is recorded.

(a)

The possible outcomes of selecting two balls are as follows:

B₁B₁          B₂B₁          W₁B₁          W₂B₁          W₃B₁

B₁B₂         B₂B₂          W₁B₂         W₂B₂          W₃B₂

B₁W₁         B₂W₁         W₁W₁         W₂W₁         W₃W₁

B₁W₂        B₂W₂         W₁W₂        W₂W₂         W₃W₂

B₁W₃        B₂W₃         W₁W₃        W₂W₃         W₃W₃

There are a total of N = 25 possible outcomes.

(b)

The sample space for selecting a blue ball first is:

S = {B₁B₁, B₁B₂, B₁W₁, B₁W₂, B₁W₃, B₂B₁, B₂B₂, B₂W₁, B₂W₂, B₂W₃}

n (S) = 10

Compute the probability that the first ball drawn is blue as follows:

P(\text{First ball is Blue})=\frac{n(S)}{N}=\frac{10}{25}=0.40

Thus, the probability that the first ball drawn is blue is 0.40.

(c)

The sample space for selecting only white balls is:

X = {W₁W₁, W₂W₁, W₃W₁, W₁W₂, W₂W₂, W₃W₂, W₁W₃, W₂W₃, W₃W₃}

n (X) = 9

Compute the probability that only white balls are drawn as follows:

P(\text{Only White balls})=\frac{n(X)}{N}=\frac{9}{25}=0.36

Thus, the probability that only white balls are drawn is 0.36.

4 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

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s = 10 \times 11\sqrt{2}

s = 110\sqrt{2}

P = 4s

P = 4 \times 100 \sqrt{2}

P = 440 \sqrt{2}

The perimeter is irrational.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: your friend would get 17$

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2 years ago
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