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Alchen [17]
2 years ago
9

On January 1, 2017, Christel Madan Corporation had inventory of $56,000. At December 31, 2017, Christel Madan had the following

account balances.
Freight-in $ 4,100
Purchases 505,500
Purchase discounts 7,250
Purchase returns and allowances 3,500
Sales revenue 810,000
Sales discounts 5,100
Sales returns and allowances 12,000

At December 31, 2017, Christel Madan determines that its ending inventory is $66,000.

Compute Christel Madan’s 2017 gross profit.


Gross profit?

Compute Christel Madan’s 2017 operating expenses if net income is $142,000 and there are no nonoperating activities.


Operating expenses?
Business
1 answer:
lara [203]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Gross Profit = $304,050

Operating expenses = $162,050

Explanation:

The computation of gross profit and operating expenses is shown below:-

Net purchases = Purchase - Purchase discounts - Purchase returns and allowances

= $505,500 - $7,250 - $3,500

= $494,750    

Cost of goods sold = Net purchases + Freight-in + Inventory + Ending inventory

= $494,750 + $4,100 + $56,000 - $66,000

= $488,850    

Gross profit = Net sales - Cost of goods sold

= ($810,000 - $5,100 - $12,000) - $488,850

= $304,050

Operating expenses = Gross profit - Net income

= $304,050 - $142,000

= $162,050

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Arisa [49]

Answer:<em> Option (b) is correct.</em>

From the given options , the following is an example of shadowing:<em> Three young interns practicing under the guidance of an experienced surgeon. </em>

<em>Shadowing here refers to on-the-job learning program. It also includes development program related to career and leadership. This also involves working with individuals who might have different work, or might have to teach the individual about aspects related to the work, business or competencies. </em>

6 0
1 year ago
On December 31, 2019, Wintergreen, Inc., issued $150,000 of 7 percent, 10-year bonds at a price of 93.25. Wintergreen received $
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

June 30, 2020   Bond Interest expense      Debit        $5,756.25

                                     Discount on Bonds payable    Credit      $506.25

                                     Cash                                          Credit      $5,250

Explanation:

We have to calculate the interest expense. The bond interest expense = Cash payment + bond amortization discount

Given,

Bond price = $150,000

Interest = 7%

Number of period, n = 10 years × 2 (As it is a semiannual bond) = 20

Cash payment for semiannual interest = $150,000 × 0.07 × (1÷2)

Cash payment for semiannual interest = $5,250 (Credit)

Amortized bond discount (discount on bonds payable) = $10,125 ÷ 20 (as it is a semiannual payment and $10,125 is for 10 years)

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Therefore, bond interest expense = $5,250 + $506.25 = $5,756.25 (Debit)

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1 year ago
A newsvendor orders the quantity that maximizes expected profit for two products, X and Y. The critical ratio for both products
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Answer:

A. Product A, because it has less certain demand.

Explanation:

According to the statement, the product X (A) is the one with the highest proportion of standard deviation, that is, it has a more uncertain demand. Taking into account this condition, it is expected that the number of optimal products will be greater because it has an average and critical relationship. For this reason, it is expected that the news seller will lean towards the first product, since it will generate higher income as explained at the beginning.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Leo received $7,500 today and will receive another $5,000 two years from today. He will invest these funds when he receives them
alekssr [168]

Answer:

Value of Investment= Principal (1+Rate of return)^Number of periods

For the first investment the principal is 7,500, the rate of return is 11.5% and the number of periods are 5 so the value of the investment will be

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For the second investment the principal is 5,000, the rate of return is 11.5 and the number of periods are 3 as the 5,000 is invested two years from today.

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Total value of investments = 12,925 +6,931 = $19,856

8 0
1 year ago
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Answer:

Spot USD/GBP rate = 1.5711

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This means an arbitrage opportunity exists here.

c) I would sell GBP forward for 1 year @ 1.60.

This means that I will receive USD 1.60 for every 1 GBP I sell instead of  1.56797 that is the ideal deal.

This is how I would take advantage of the arbitrage opportunity.

8 0
1 year ago
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