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kari74 [83]
2 years ago
14

Beckenworth had cost of goods sold of $9,421 million, ending inventory of $2,089 million, and average inventory of $1,965 millio

n. Its days' sales in inventory equals: (Use 365 days a year.)
A)0.21.
B)4.51.
C)4.79.
D)76.1 days.
E)80.9 days.
Business
1 answer:
Olegator [25]2 years ago
8 0

Answer

E) 80.9 days

Explanation

Days Sales of Inventory = (Ending Inventory / Cost of Goods Sold) x 365

Where,

Ending Inventory = $2,089 million

Cost of Goods Sold = $9,421 million

Days Sales of Inventory = (2089 / 9421) x 365 = 80.9 days

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Josefina is the only seller of sopapillas in town. Last week, she sold 200 sopapillas, and the marginal revenue of the 200th sop
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

Josefina is not maximizing her profits since she is making a loss of $0.25.

Explanation:

The marginal revenue is the total amount of revenue received from selling an additional unit of product while the marginal cost is the total cost incurred for producing an additional unit of product. The marginal cost and revenue can be compared to determine if producing and selling an additional unit is profitable or will cause a loss.

The profit/loss can be expressed as;

P/L=R-C

where;

P=profit

L=loss

R=total marginal revenue

C=total marginal cost

In our case;

P/L=unknown

R=marginal revenue per unit×number of units=1.50×1=$1.50

C=marginal cost per unit×number of units=$1.75×1=$1.75

replacing;

P/L=1.50-1.75=-$0.25

Since the marginal cost is greater than the marginal revenue, we can conclude that Josefina is making a loss of $0.25

7 0
2 years ago
TEW COMPANY Balance Sheet As of December 31 ASSETS Cash $ 20,000 Accounts receivable 80,000 Inventory 50,000 Net plant and equip
Mariana [72]

ANSWER: 57.5%

Debt to assets ratio:

= Total Liabilities / Total Assets

Given:

Cash $20,000

Accounts Receivable $80,000

Inventory $50,000

Net Plant and Equipment $250,000

Total Assets: $400,000

Accounts Payable $40,000

Accrued Expenses $60,000

Long Term Debt $130,000

Total Liabilities: $230,000

Computation:

= $230,000 / $400,000

= 57.5%

The interpretation of the figures shown is that 57.5% of the total assets are financed by the creditors of company instead of investors being funded by borrowing compared as how much was funded by the investors.

Generally, 40℅ ratio or lower is considered as a good debt ratio. Above than 60℅ ratio is said as poor ratio, because of the risk that the company will not be able to generate cash flows to finance and pay its debts.

Therefore, TEW Company has a normal and efficient ratio of 57.5% and is able to pay its debts.

3 0
2 years ago
Mussatto Corporation produces snowboards. The following per unit cost information is available: direct materials $12, direct lab
o-na [289]

Answer:

$75.40

Explanation:

Mark up is a percentage applied on the cost to get the selling price. In other  word, the difference between the marked-up amount and the total cost gives the profit of the entity.

To get the target selling price, we would first determine the total cost, then apply the mark up percentage on the cost and add the result to the cost.

Total cost per unit

= $12 + $4 + $9 + $10 + $5 + $12

= $52

Amount of mark up

= 45% * $52

= $23.40

Target selling price = $52 + $23.40

= $75.40

4 0
2 years ago
Assume the current Treasury yield curve shows that the spot rates for six​ months, one​ year, and one and a half years are 1 %1%
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

present value of bond = $1042.96

Explanation:

given data

spot rates for six​ months = 1%

spot rates for one and = 1.1%​

spot rates for one and half years = 1.3%​

price = $1000

coupon bond = 4.25%

time = 6 month

solution

we get here first price on bond paid that is

coupon paid = $1000 × 4.25 × 0.5   = $21.25

we get here present value of 6 month and 1 year and 1 and half  year

present value  =   \frac{coupon\ payment }{(1+\frac{spot \ rate}{2})^t}     ..............1

present value of 6 month = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.1}{2})^1}    = 20.23

present value of 1 year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.011}{2})^2}   = 21.01  

present value of 1 year and half year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^2}   =  20.97

and

now we get present value of par value in 1 and half year

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{par\ value}{(1+\frac{spot rate}{2})^3}  

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{1000}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^3}

present value of par value in 1 and half year = 980.75

so

present value of bond will be as

present value of bond = 20.23 + 21.01 + 20.97 + 980.75

present value of bond = $1042.96

5 0
2 years ago
In applying the treasury stock method of computing diluted earnings per share, when is it appropriate to use the average market
castortr0y [4]
I believe that 2 is the answer
3 0
2 years ago
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