Answer: $107,900
Explanation:
Cumulative Preferred Shares refer to shares that a company has to pay dividends eventually. This means that if they are unable to pay for some years, they are to accrue that payment until they are able to.
There are 119000 shares of no-par 6% preferred stock with a stated value of $5.
That means preferred shares are liable to the following amount of dividends,
= 119,000 * 5 * 6%
= $35,700
Preferred Shares have not being paid for the past 2 years and need to be paid in the current year as well. That means 3 payments,
= 35,700 * 3
= $107,100
Preferred Shares are to be paid $107,100 out of the $215,000 with the rest going to common shares.
Amount going to Common Shares is,
= 215,000 - 107,100
= $107,900
Common Stockholders are to receive $107,900
Answer:
$11
Explanation:
"The required return for the computer chip industry is 15%, and the company has just gone ex-dividend (i.e., the next dividend will be paid a year from now, at t 1) (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)"
g = ROE*b
g = ROE * (1-Payout ratio)
g = 20% * (1-0.5)
g = 10%
P0 = D1/k-g
P0 = D0(1+g) / k-g
P0 = 0.5(1+0.10) / (0.15+0.10)
P0 = $11
S0, the market price of Chiptech stock is $11
Last week: $12,500.This week: $12,500 * 2 = $25,000Next week: ( $12,500 + $25,000 ) : 2 = $37,500 : 2 = $18,750Answer: David plans to spend $18,750 on advertising next week.
Answer:
In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22.
In a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft.
Explanation:
In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22 because based on the information given we were told that the customer original order resulted in one $22 fee which means that 1 multiply by $22 fee will give us $22 (1*22) which is the amount owe by the customer.
Secondly in a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make the customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft reason been that we were been told that the reordering resulted in four $22 fee which means that four multiply by $22 fee will give us $88 (4*22).
