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Over [174]
1 year ago
15

What expression is equivalent to 15 + 80?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sloan [31]1 year ago
6 0

Answer:  The correct option is (B)5(3+16).

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given to select the correct expression that is equivalent to the expression below :

E=15+80~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(i)

The value of the above expression is

E=15+80=95.

We have

3(5+20)=3\times 25=75\neq 95,\\\\5(3+16)=5\times19=95,\\\\15(1+4)=15\times 5=75\neq 95,\\\\4(4+20)=4\times24=96\neq95.

Therefore, the required equivalent expression is 5(3+16).

Option (B) is CORRECT.

Ganezh [65]1 year ago
3 0
20+5=25*3=75 so it isnt that
16+3=19*5=95
1+4=5*15=60
20+4=24*4=96
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2 years ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
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Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
1 year ago
Arnold took out a loan of 195,000 to purchase a home. At a 4.3% interest rate compounded annually, how much total will they have
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Answer:

25155000

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>we know intrest (i):-PTR/100</h3>

by formula

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100

2. 5850000<u>×4.3</u>

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1 year ago
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She has 2 dimes and 4 nickels.
Knowing dimes equal 10 cents, if you have 1 dime and 3 nickels, you’d have 20 cents, 2 dimes and 4 nickels you’d have 40 cents. You have to have two more nickels than dimes.
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So five pages of her fiction book in 7 minutes. And she must read thirty pages:

30/5 = 6.

6 * 7 = 42 minutes for the fiction book.

So 2 pages of her history book in seven minutes.

30/2 = 15.

15 * 7 = 105 minutes for the history textbook

Add:

42 + 105 = 147 minutes.

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