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elena-s [515]
2 years ago
8

Enter the values for the highlighted variables to complete the steps to find the sum:

Mathematics
1 answer:
umka21 [38]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

  • a = -1
  • b = -9
  • c = 9
  • d = 3
  • e = 3
  • f = 2
  • g = 3/2 = 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

For "a", we recognize that 6-2x is the opposite of 2x-6, so multiplying the latter by -1 will give the former. a = -1

For "b", we notice the denominator no longer has -1 as a factor. Rather, that has be applied to the numerator, which is now -9. b = -9

For "c" we have combined the two numerators over the common denominator. Note that the sign is already provided. 3x +(-9) = 3x -9. c = 9

For "d" and "e", we recognize that 3 is a factor of both terms of the numerator of the previous expression. Here, we factor that out. d = 3, e = 3

The common factor of the terms in the denominator is factored out to find "f". That value is 2. f = 2

The numerator and denominator factors of (x -3) have been cancelled in the last step, leaving the result d/f = 3/2. This is the value of the simplified expression, hence the value of g. g = 3/2 = 1.5

_____

<em>Comment on g</em>

We don't know if your answer checker is able to accept fractions as input, so we have expressed g both as a fraction and as a decimal number.

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A supermarket has two customers waiting to pay for their purchases at counter I and one customer waiting to pay at counter II. L
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

b. 0.864

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start defining the random variables.

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Y2 : ''Number of customers who spend more than $50 on groceries at counter 2''

If X is a binomial random variable, the probability function for X is :

P(X=x)=(nCx)p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}

Where P(X=x) is the probability of the random variable X to assume the value x

nCx is the combinatorial number define as :

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

n is the number of independent Bernoulli experiments taking place

And p is the success probability.

In counter I :

Y1 ~ Bi (n,p)

Y1 ~ Bi(2,0.2)

P(Y1=y1)=(2Cy1)(0.2)^{y1}(0.8)^{2-y1}

With y1 ∈ {0,1,2}

And P( Y1 = y1 ) = 0 with y1 ∉ {0,1,2}

In counter II :

Y2 ~ Bi (n,p)

Y2 ~ Bi (1,0.3)

P(Y2=y2)=(1Cy2)(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

With y2 ∈ {0,1}

And P( Y2 = y2 ) = 0 with y2 ∉ {0,1}

(1Cy2) with y2 = 0 and y2 = 1 is equal to 1 so the probability function for Y2 is :

P(Y2=y2)=(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

Y1 and Y2 are independent so the joint probability distribution is the product of the Y1 probability function and the Y2 probability function.

P(Y1=y1,Y2=y2)=P(Y1=y1).P(Y2=y2)

P(Y1=y1,Y2=y2)=(2Cy1)(0.2)^{y1}(0.8)^{2-y1}(0.3)^{y2}(0.7)^{1-y2}

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P( Y1 = y1 , Y2 = y2) = 0 when y1 ∉ {0,1,2} or y2 ∉ {0,1}

b. Not more than one of three customers will spend more than $50 can mathematically be expressed as :

Y1 + Y2 \leq 1

Y1 + Y2\leq 1 when Y1 = 0 and Y2 = 0 , when Y1 = 1 and Y2 = 0 and finally when Y1 = 0 and Y2 = 1

To calculate P(Y1+Y2\leq 1) we must sume all the probabilities that satisfy the equation :

P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=P(Y1=0,Y2=0)+P(Y1=1,Y2=0)+P(Y1=0,Y2=1)

P(Y1=0,Y2=0)=(2C0)(0.2)^{0}(0.8)^{2-0}(0.3)^{0}(0.7)^{1-0}=(0.8)^{2}(0.7)=0.448

P(Y1=1,Y2=0)=(2C1)(0.2)^{1}(0.8)^{2-1}(0.3)^{0}(0.7)^{1-0}=2(0.2)(0.8)(0.7)=0.224

P(Y1=0,Y2=1)=(2C0)(0.2)^{0}(0.8)^{2-0}(0.3)^{1}(0.7)^{1-1}=(0.8)^{2}(0.3)=0.192

P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=0.448+0.224+0.192=0.864\\P(Y1+Y2\leq 1)=0.864

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Answer:

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Answer:

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