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valkas [14]
2 years ago
6

if £2000 is placed into a bank account that pays 3% compound interest per year how much will be in the account after 2 years

Mathematics
2 answers:
rewona [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:okStep-by-step explanation:

kakasveta [241]2 years ago
3 0

Principal Balance: 2000

Compound Interest: 3%

Type: Yearly

2000 x 1.03 = 2060

Year 1 : £2060

2060 x 1.03 = 2121.8

Year 2: £2121.8

There will be £2,121.80 in the account after 2 years.

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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
1 year ago
For a quadrilateral to be a parallelogram, its opposite sides and _____ must be congruent.
Natalija [7]
<span>opposite sides and _____ </span>and angles 
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2 years ago
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a factory adds three red drops and two blue drops of coloring to white paint to make each pint of purple paint. the factory will
iogann1982 [59]
So there are 8 pints in a us gallon, 2 drops of blue to make a pint of purple (2x8x50=800) and then 3 drops of red to make purple (3x8x50=1200) I think maybe I've missed a step but (800+1200=2000) so 2000 drops of red and blue combined to make 50 gallons of purple paint.

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IF AM = 10, then TC =?
iren [92.7K]
Hey there,

If AM= 10

We do 180 - 10.

And that would give us 170°

TC=170

Hope this helps.
~Jurgen
6 0
1 year ago
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Amina used the quadratic formula to solve an equation. Her result shows two solutions that are complex numbers with imaginary pa
Mama L [17]

A quadratic equation has either two different real roots, one real root, or two conjugate complex roots (this is the case when the discriminant is negative, i.e. when you have no real roots).

Two conjugate complex roots have the same real part and opposite imaginary parts. So, the solutions to Amina's equation will be in this form:

a+bi,\ \ a-bi

For some a,b\in\mathbb{R},\ b\neq 0

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1 year ago
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