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Svet_ta [14]
2 years ago
12

Karvel Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours to apply manufacturing overhead to jobs. For the mo

nth of August, Karvel estimated total manufacturing overhead costs at $300,000 and total machine-hours at 75,000 hours. Actual results for the period were manufacturing overhead costs of $290,000 and 75,000 machine-hours. As a result, Karvel would have: Multiple Choice applied more overhead to Work in Process than the actual amount of overhead cost for the year. applied less overhead to Work in Process than the actual amount of overhead cost for the year. applied an amount of overhead to Work in Process that was equal to the actual amount of overhead. found it necessary to recalculate the predetermined overhead rate.
Business
1 answer:
Galina-37 [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Karvel would have applied more overhead to Work in Process than the actual amount of overhead cost for the year.

Option A is correct.

Explanation:lj;kxzx

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead cost/estimated machine hours.

Therefore, the  overhead rate of Karvel Corporation = $300,000 /75,000 = $4.00 per hour.

Now, we need to apply the Predetermined overhead rate on the actual machine hours.

At 75,000 machine-hours, the amount that would have been applied = 75,000*4 = $300,000.

Over/under- applied cost = Actual overhead cost - applied overhead cost.

Actual overhead cost = $290,000.

Applied  overhead cost = $300,000

Under- applied cost = $290,000 - $300,000 = -$10,000.

Thus, Karvel Corporation applied more overhead to Work in Process than the actual amount of overhead cost for the year.

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Suppose there is one ticket left for tonight’s performance of Hamilton on Broadway. The ticket costs $700. Sean is a community c
castortr0y [4]

Answer: B. Anca

Explanation:

From the information provided in the question, we should note that Anca purchasing the tickets will lead to a more economically efficient outcome.

From the information given, we can see that Anca is willing to pay $1250 while Sean wants to pay $705. Therefrom Anca purchasing the tickets leads to a better efficiency.

We can also infer that if Anca pays $1,250, a consumer surplus of $550 is gotten while Sean would get a consumer surplus of only $5.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

3 0
1 year ago
A business executive once stated, "depreciation is one of our biggest operating cash inflows." do you agree? explain.
Rasek [7]
Depreciation charges are the attention to the Accumulated Depreciation account, which is a noncash equity sheet account. Depreciation is combined to that account in order to adjust net income for all of the charges in the noncash equity sheet account appeared in the period.
5 0
2 years ago
Vaughn Manufacturing has outstanding 596000 shares of $2 par common stock and 119000 shares of no-par 6% preferred stock with a
natima [27]

Answer: $107,900

Explanation:

Cumulative Preferred Shares refer to shares that a company has to pay dividends eventually. This means that if they are unable to pay for some years, they are to accrue that payment until they are able to.

There are 119000 shares of no-par 6% preferred stock with a stated value of $5.

That means preferred shares are liable to the following amount of dividends,

= 119,000 * 5 * 6%

= $35,700

Preferred Shares have not being paid for the past 2 years and need to be paid in the current year as well. That means 3 payments,

= 35,700 * 3

= $107,100

Preferred Shares are to be paid $107,100 out of the $215,000 with the rest going to common shares.

Amount going to Common Shares is,

= 215,000 - 107,100

= $107,900

Common Stockholders are to receive $107,900

7 0
2 years ago
A small firm intends to increase the capacity of a bottleneck operation by adding a new machine. Two alternatives, A and B, have
Korolek [52]

Answer:

a. Alternative A Break-even point is 8,000 units Alternative B Break-even point is 7,500 units

b. Same profit with both alternatives at 10,000 units

c. Alternative A would have higher profit with a demmand of 12,000 units

Explanation:

a. FC/CMGu=BP

being:

FC= fixed costs

CMGu=contribution margin per unit

BP= Break even point

CMGu is the difference between price of sale and variable cost (per unit)

Alt. A Break-even point is $40,000/$5=8,000 UNITS

Alt. B Break-even point is $30,000/$4=7,500 UNITS

b. At 10,000 units both alternatives have the same profit

Alt. a.

Revenues= $150,000

Variable cost= $-100,000

Fixes Costs= $-40,000

------------------------------------

profit $10,000

Alt. b.

Revenues= $150,000

Variable cost= $-110,000

Fixes Costs= $-30,000

------------------------------------

profit $10,000

c. sales for 12,000 units

Alt. a.

Revenues= $180,000

Variable cost= $-120,000

Fixes Costs= $-40,000

------------------------------------

profit $20,000

Alt. b.

Revenues= $180,000

Variable cost= $-132,000

Fixes Costs= $-30,000

------------------------------------

profit $18,000

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In China, Starbucks is standardizing its operations while simultaneously decentralizing some decision-making responsibility to l
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:transnational is the answer

Explanation:have a great day

3 0
2 years ago
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