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Free_Kalibri [48]

2 years ago

10

Ron randomly pulls a pen out of a box that contains 1 red, 2 black, and 3 blue pens. He does

1 answer:

grigory [225]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The more experiments that are done, the more the theoretical trend is marked

Step-by-step explanation:

The first thing is to define each probability,

-Theoretical probability is a proportion that expresses the ways to be successful in the total events of an experiment.

-Experimental probability is the proportion of the proposed result for the number of experimental attempts.

Based on this, the reason that best supports this is that the more the experiment is repeated, the closer the experimental probability gets to the theoretical one, since as the number of attempts increases, it tends to go more to what theoretically is what would happen.

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$1,200, 3.9%, 8months

Alexeev081 [22]

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2 years ago

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For quality control purposes, a company that manufactures sim chips for cell/smart phones routinely takes samples from its pro

ololo11 [35]

Answer:

There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each chip, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are imperfect, or they are not.

This means that we can solve this problem using binomial distribution probability concepts.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem

A success is a chip being imperfect. Suppose the average number of imperfections per 1000 sim chips is 3. So $\pi = \frac{3}{1000} = 0.003$ .

What is the probability that a sample this size (1000 chips) has 2 imperfections?

The sample has 1000 chips, wo $n = 1000$

We want P(X = 2).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{1000,2}.(0.003)^{2}.(0.997)^{998} = 0.2242$

There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.

7 0

2 years ago

Lucinda began the year with a certain balance in her bank account. During the first month, she made 3 withdrawals of $25 each. D

ryzh [129]

A and D !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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goblinko [34]

Answer:

that is the solution to the question

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Dominic earns $285 per week plus an 8% commission rate on all his sales. If Dominic sells $4,213 worth of merchandise in one wee

nexus9112 [7]

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2 years ago