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Aliun [14]
2 years ago
7

A certain amount of money is shared in a ratio 2:3:9. If the difference between the first and second shares is $40, then the amo

unt of money shared is m?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex787 [66]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The amount of money shared is 360

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that A certain amount of money is shared in a ratio 2:3:9.

Let x be the ratio

So, Shares of amount = 2x,3x and 9x

We are given that the difference between the first and second shares is $40

\Rightarrow 3x-2x=40

x=40

So, Shares are :

2x=2(40)=80

3x=3(40)=120

4x=4(40)=160

So,Total amount = 80+120+160=360

Hence the amount of money shared is 360

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When a test for steroids is given to soccer players, 98% of the players taking steroids test positive and 12% of the players not
anygoal [31]

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P = 0.300 or 30%

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Ivahew [28]

Answer:

a)P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

b) P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298

c) P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

So then we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Part a

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And using the probability mass function we got:

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Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complenet rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

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P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

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