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pashok25 [27]
2 years ago
5

Trucks R' Us has a market capitalization of $142 million, $78 billion in BB rated debt, and $10 billion in cash. If Trucks R' Us

' equity beta is 1.68, then their underlying asset beta is closest to:
Business
1 answer:
Sati [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

Debt is given as $78 billion

Equity is given as $142 billion

equity beta given as 1.68

Therefore, in order to calculate the underlying asset beta we would have to use the formula of the the equity beta for a levered firm as follows:

betaE =beta A [1 + (Debt / Equity)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + ($78 B/ $142 B)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + 0.5493]

betaA = 1.68 / 1.5493

betaA = 1.08

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

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The company produced 5,200 units in January using 39,310 grams of direct material and 2,380 direct labor-hours. During the month
Cloud [144]

Answer:c $1666F

Explanation:

See attached file

5 0
1 year ago
Stew Beauf is a self-employed surfboard-maker in 2019. His Schedule C net income is $152,800 for the year. He also has a part-ti
NikAS [45]
The answer to this question is $356,567
6 0
1 year ago
Dividends on CCN corporation are expected to grow at a 9% per year. Assume that the discount rate on CCN is 12% and that the exp
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

P14 = $55.69545045394  rounded off to  $55.70

Explanation:

The constant growth model of dividend discount model (DDM) can be used to calculate the price of the stock today. DDM calculates the price of a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under constant growth DDM is,

P0 = D1 / (r - g)

Where,

  • D1 is the dividend expected in Year 1 or next year
  • g is the constant growth rate in dividends
  • r is the discount rate or required rate of return

To calculate the price of the share today, we use the dividend that is expected next year or in Year 1. Thus, to calculate the price of the share 14 years from now, we use use D15. The D15 can be calculated as follows,

D15 = D1 * (1+g)^14

D15 = 0.50 * (1+0.09)^14

D15 = $1.67086351362  rounded off to  $1.67

Now using the equation for Price as provided by the DDM model,

P14 = 1.67086351362 / (0.12 - 0.09)

P14 = $55.69545045394  rounded off to $55.70

6 0
1 year ago
Vegetarian Delights has been experiencing declining market conditions for its specialty foods division. Management decided to te
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

$3.5 million

Explanation:

Data given in the question

Book value of the division assets = $33.50 million

Fair value of the division assets = $30 million

The sum of estimated future cash flows generated = $38 million

So, by considering the above information, the amount of impairment loss is

= Book value of the division assets - fair value of the division asset

= $33.5 million - $30 million

= $3.5 million

Since the fair value is less than the book value so the difference should be recorded as an impairment loss

5 0
1 year ago
A townhouse is purchased for $475,000. If the transfer tax is $2.00 on the first $1,000. and $0.10 for each additional $100., ho
masya89 [10]

Based on the information given the amount of the transfer taxes is $476.

Using this formula

Total transfer tax=[(Purchased price+ First transfer tax)×(Additional tax)]+Transfer tax

Let plug in the formula

Total transfer tax=[($475,000-$1,000)×($0.10/$100)]+$2

Total transfer tax = ([$474,000 x .001] + $2)

Total transfer tax=$474+$2

Total transfer tax=$476

Inconclusion the amount of the transfer taxes is $476.

Learn more here:brainly.com/question/17122829

5 0
1 year ago
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