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astra-53 [7]
2 years ago
6

"What is the ultimate reason for trading equity for financial support? a. it is usually a deal/no deal option b. preparing for t

he questions asked in pitching and due diligence will ultimately improve the company c. it is more likely that the entrepreneur will build a more valuable company d. there will be more people interested in the company’s success'
Business
1 answer:
4vir4ik [10]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the option C: It is more likely that the entrepreneur will build a more valuable company.

Explanation:

To begin with, the fact that the companies nowadays trade equity for financial support indicates that there is an extremely important need in the management of the company to obtain more backup in financial terms and that without it, the other companies tend to growth better than the one who has not support from third parties. Therefore that the managers look forward to obtain financial support with the purpose of investing all the money that enters and getting better at what the company does. That is why than when the owners manages to get the support it will prove to other that the company can growth and be more valuable and get more success eventually.

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Merck, a pharmaceutical company, has taken thousands of drugs through the federal approval process and so can do it more cost ef
melomori [17]

Answer:

learning effects

Explanation:

Learning effects: In economics, the term "learning effects" is described as the process through which specific education is considered as increasing productivity and therefore results in producing higher wages. It gives an insight to the company to develop some competitive advantage by decreasing some of the production costs. However, the employees are focused on working more efficiently, decrease in the number of wastes and defects on several products.

In the question above, the given statement signifies the leaning effects.  

4 0
2 years ago
Mr. and Mrs. Haley are purchasing beachfront property in an upscale development. The home comes equipped with all furnishings. T
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer: package mortgage

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Mr and Mrs. Haley are purchasing beachfront property in an upscale development and that the home comes equipped with all furnishings.

We are further told that the Haleys want to get a mortgage that will cover the purchase price plus all the furnishings. This shows that they are looking for package mortgage.

A package mortgage is a form of mortgage whereby the personal property and the furniture will have to be included when buying the house.

8 0
2 years ago
Item9 2 points Time Remaining 2 hours 55 minutes 49 seconds02:55:49 eBookItem 9Item 9 2 points Time Remaining 2 hours 55 minutes
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price $118

Units sold 2,300

Variable costs per unit:

Direct materials $37

Direct labor $23

Variable manufacturing overhead $3

Variable selling and administrative expense $5

<u>First, we need to determine the total unitary variable cost:</u>

Unitary variable cost= 37 + 23 + 3 + 5=$68

<u>Variable cost income statement:</u>

Sales= 2,300*118= 271,400

Total variable cost= 68*2,300= (156,400)

Total contribution margin= 115,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead= (73,500)

Fixed selling and administrative expense= (29,900)

Net operating income= 11,600

5 0
2 years ago
Why are infectious agents and toxins ("select agents") listed in the "additional requirements for facilities transferring or rec
nika2105 [10]
They are given additional regulatory oversight by CDC BECAUSE THE ITEMS POSE A SEVERE THREAT TO PUBLIC HEALTH AND SAFETY. 
Because of the high threat that the items pose to the society's health, regulations have to be put in place to control their transportation and use in order to protect the safety and health of humans, animals and plants and plant products. 
8 0
1 year ago
Seventy-Two Inc., a developer of radiology equipment, has stock outstanding as follows: 60,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2%
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Year 1: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $51,000; Dividend paid to common stock = 0.

Year 2: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $93,000; Dividend paid to common stock = $12,000.

Year 3: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000; Dividend paid common stock = $9,000.

Year 4: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000; Dividend paid common stock = $48,000.

Explanation:

Year 1

Dividend distributed = $51,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $51,000

Carried forward cumulative preferred stock dividend = $72,000 - $51,000 = $21,000

Dividend paid to common stock = 0

Year 2

Dividend distributed = $105,000

Year 2 cumulative preferred stock dividend due = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = Due in year 2 + Carried down from year 1 = $72,000 + $21,000 = $93,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $93,000

Dividend paid to common stock = $105,000 - $93,000 = $12,000

Year 3

Dividend distributed = $81,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000

Dividend paid common stock = $81,000 - $72,000 = $9,000

Year 4

Dividend distributed = $120,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000

Dividend paid common stock = $120,000 - $72,000 = $48,000

5 0
2 years ago
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