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Nimfa-mama [501]
2 years ago
8

A coin will be flipped repeatedly until the sequence TTH (tail/tail/head) comes up. Successive flips are independent, and the co

in has probability p of coming up heads. Let N,TTH be the number of coin flips until TTH first appears. What value of p minimizes Ex[N,TTH]
Mathematics
1 answer:
padilas [110]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

P = \frac{1}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

The calculation of the value of p minimizes is shown below:-

We will assume the probability of coming heads be p

p(H) = p

p(T) = 1 - P

Now, H and T are only outcomes of flipping a coin

So,

P(TTH) = (1 - P) = (1 - P) (1 - P) P

= (1 + P^2 - 2 P) P

= P^3 - 2P^2 + P

In order to less N,TTH

we need to increase P(TTH)

The equation will be

\frac{d P(TTH)}{dP} = 0

3P^2 - 4P + 1 = 0

(3P - 1) (P - 1) = 0

P = 1 and 1 ÷ 3

For P(TTH) to be maximum

\frac{d^2 P(TTH)}{dP} < 0 for\ P\ critical\\\\\frac{d (3P^2 - 4P - 1)}{dP}

= 6P - 4

and

(6P - 4) is negative which is for

P = \frac{1}{3}

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If the area of a park is exactly halfway between 2.4 and 2.5 acres, what is the area of the park
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According to a Pew Research survey, about 27% of American adults are pessimistic about the future of marriage and the family. Th
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

P(X≤5)=0.5357

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the binomial model, the probability that x adults from the sample, are pessimistic about the future is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} *p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}

Where n is the size of the sample and p is the probability that an adult is pessimistic about the future of marriage and family. So, replacing n by 20 and p by 0.27, we get:

P(x)=\frac{20!}{x!(20-x)!}*0.27^{x}*(1-0.27)^{20-x}

Now, 25% of 20 people is equal to 5 people, so the probability that, in a sample of 20 American adults, 25% or fewer of the people are pessimistic about the future of marriage and family is equal to calculated the probability that in the sample of 20 adults, 5 people of fewer are pessimistic about the future of marriage and family.

Then, that probability is calculated as:

P(X≤5)= P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4) + P(5)

Where:

P(0)=\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!}*0.27^{0}*(1-0.27)^{20-0}=0.0018

P(1)=\frac{20!}{1!(20-1)!}*0.27^{1}*(1-0.27)^{20-1}=0.0137

P(2)=\frac{20!}{2!(20-2)!}*0.27^{2}*(1-0.27)^{20-2}=0.0480\\P(3)=\frac{20!}{3!(20-3)!}*0.27^{3}*(1-0.27)^{20-3}=0.1065\\P(4)=\frac{20!}{4!(20-4)!}*0.27^{4}*(1-0.27)^{20-4}=0.1675\\P(5)=\frac{20!}{5!(20-5)!}*0.27^{5}*(1-0.27)^{20-5}=0.1982

Finally, P(X≤5) is equal to:

P(X≤5) = 0.0018+0.0137 + 0.0480 + 0.1065 + 0.1675 + 0.1982

P(X≤5) = 0.5357

3 0
2 years ago
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